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Past Questions — 2021
Immediate treatment of anaphylaxis in farm animals involves the use of:
A)
Antihistamines
B)
Adrenaline
C)
Corticosteroids
D)
Polyionic fluids
The immediate drug of choice for anaphylaxis in farm animals is adrenaline (epinephrine). It rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction, supports blood pressure by vasoconstriction, and reduces edema, making it life-saving in acute anaphylactic shock. Antihistamines and corticosteroids may be used as supportive or follow-up therapy, but they act more slowly and are not the first immediate treatment. Polyionic fluids can help manage shock, but they do not reverse the acute anaphylactic reaction as quickly as adrenaline.
Thawing of frozen semen straw of bull is done for 15-30 second at:
A)
20°C
B)
5°C
C)
45°C
D)
37°C
Frozen bull semen straws are conventionally thawed in warm water at 37°C for about 15–30 seconds before insemination. This temperature allows proper revival of sperm cells without causing thermal shock.
Why others are incorrect: 20°C and 5°C are too low for proper rapid thawing, while 45°C is too high and may damage sperm viability.
How many farrowing a LWY sow usually give in a year when the weaning of piglet is done at 45 days and the weaning to conception interval is 5 days?
A)
2.50
B)
2.23
C)
2.00
D)
2.35
Number of farrowings per sow per year = 365 / farrowing interval. Farrowing interval consists of gestation period + lactation (weaning age) + weaning-to-conception interval. For pigs: gestation = 114 days, weaning = 45 days, weaning-to-conception = 5 days. So total interval = 114 + 45 + 5 = 164 days. Therefore, farrowings per year = 365 / 164 ≈ 2.23. Hence option (b) is correct. The other options do not match this standard calculation.
Curd like semen is found in:
A)
Orchitis
B)
Prostatitis
C)
Vesiculitis
D)
Epididymitis
Curd-like semen is characteristically seen in vesiculitis, which is inflammation of the seminal vesicles. In this condition, pus flakes and inflammatory exudate mix with semen, giving it a thick, clotted or curd-like appearance.
Why others are incorrect: Orchitis is inflammation of the testes and mainly affects sperm production, not typically causing curd-like semen. Prostatitis may alter semen quality and cause pus contamination, but curd-like semen is more specifically associated with vesiculitis. Epididymitis affects sperm transport and may reduce fertility, but this sign is not classically linked to it.
Cytobrush technique is used to diagnose:
A)
Salpingitis
B)
Ovaritis
C)
Subclinical endometritis
D)
Pyometra
The cytobrush technique is used to collect endometrial cells from the uterus for cytological examination. It is especially useful for detecting inflammation of the endometrium when there are no obvious clinical signs, i.e., subclinical endometritis.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Salpingitis is inflammation of the oviduct and is not commonly diagnosed by cytobrush.
(b) Ovaritis is inflammation of the ovary, which cannot be diagnosed by endometrial cytology.
(d) Pyometra usually presents with obvious uterine pus accumulation and is diagnosed by clinical examination, ultrasonography, or palpation rather than cytobrush as the primary method.
Thoracic surgery requires:
A)
General anaesthesia
B)
IPPV
C)
Injectable anaesthesia
D)
Oxygen supply
In thoracic surgery, opening the chest causes loss of negative intrathoracic pressure, so the lungs tend to collapse and normal spontaneous breathing becomes inadequate. Therefore, intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) is required to maintain ventilation and oxygenation during the procedure.
Why others are incorrect: (a) General anaesthesia is commonly used but by itself is not the specific essential requirement. (c) Injectable anaesthesia alone is not sufficient for thoracic surgery. (d) Oxygen supply is important, but without positive pressure ventilation it does not adequately overcome lung collapse after opening the thorax.
The spinal cord leaves the skull through.
A)
Foramen magnum
B)
Foramen spinosum
C)
Foramen rotundum
D)
None of these
The spinal cord is the continuation of the medulla oblongata and passes out of the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum, which is the large opening in the occipital bone at the base of the skull.
Why others are incorrect:
- Foramen spinosum transmits the middle meningeal artery, not the spinal cord.
- Foramen rotundum transmits the maxillary nerve, not the spinal cord.
- Therefore, 'None of these' is incorrect.
Point of elbow is form by:
A)
Tuber calsis
B)
Olecranon process
C)
Radial process
D)
None of these
The point of the elbow is formed by the olecranon process of the ulna. It is the prominent bony projection at the proximal end of the ulna and serves as the attachment for the triceps muscle.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Tuber calcis forms the point of the hock, not the elbow.
(c) Radial process does not form the point of the elbow.
(d) None of these is incorrect because the correct answer is olecranon process.
It is a posterior longitudinal presentation, dorso-sacral position, bilateral hip flexion posture.
A)
Dog sitting posture
B)
Dorsal transverse
C)
Vertex presentation
D)
Breech presentation
In obstetrical terminology, posterior longitudinal presentation means the fetus is coming hindquarters first. Dorso-sacral position means the fetal dorsum is towards the dam’s sacrum. Bilateral hip flexion posture means both hind limbs are flexed at the hip and retained forward, so the buttocks enter the birth canal first. This combination is called breech presentation.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Dog sitting posture usually refers to anterior presentation with forelimbs extended and head deviated or hind limbs flexed beneath the body, not posterior with bilateral hip flexion. (b) Dorsal transverse is a different presentation where the fetus lies crosswise. (c) Vertex presentation refers to head presentation, not hindquarters-first delivery.
Intervertebral discs are formed by which type of cartilage:
A)
Fibrocartilage
B)
Elastic cartilage
C)
Hyaline
D)
All of these
Intervertebral discs are primarily made of fibrocartilage, especially the annulus fibrosus, which provides great tensile strength and resists compression between adjacent vertebrae.
Why others are incorrect:
- Elastic cartilage: found in structures like the epiglottis and pinna, not in intervertebral discs.
- Hyaline cartilage: found on articular surfaces, costal cartilages, tracheal rings, etc., but not the main cartilage of intervertebral discs.
- All of these: incorrect because only fibrocartilage forms the intervertebral discs.
To detort right side uterine torsion a cow should be rolled towards:
A)
Left
B)
Right
C)
Both right and left
D)
None of these
In bovine uterine torsion, the cow is rolled in the same direction as the torsion to untwist the uterus. Therefore, in a right-sided uterine torsion, the cow should be rolled towards the right side.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) Left: opposite to the required direction for right torsion.
- (c) Both right and left: rolling is direction-specific, not both.
- (d) None of these: incorrect because right is the correct direction.
The approximate absorption time for Chromic Catgut inside the body is:
A)
90 days
B)
20 days
C)
30 days
D)
10 days
Chromic catgut is an absorbable suture treated with chromium salts to delay absorption. Its absorption inside the body is approximately 90 days.
Why others are incorrect:
- (b) 20 days: too short; plain catgut loses strength much earlier.
- (c) 30 days: still shorter than the usual absorption period of chromic catgut.
- (d) 10 days: far too short for chromic catgut absorption.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 90 days.
Side kick of Horse is restricted by:
A)
Pubo-femoral ligament
B)
Round ligament
C)
Sesamoiddean ligament
D)
Cruciate ligament
In the horse, abduction of the hind limb (side kick) is restricted by the pubo-femoral ligament of the hip joint. This ligament extends from the prepubic tendon/pubis to the femur and helps prevent excessive lateral movement of the limb. The round ligament mainly connects the femoral head to the acetabulum, the sesamoidean ligaments are related to the fetlock/pastern region, and the cruciate ligaments are found in the stifle joint controlling anteroposterior stability, not side kick.
Myoepithelial cells are found in:
A)
Intestine
B)
Trachea
C)
Mammary gland
D)
Oesophagus
Myoepithelial cells are specialized contractile cells located between the basement membrane and secretory/alveolar or ductal epithelial cells of certain exocrine glands. They are classically present in the mammary gland, where they help expel milk by contraction.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Intestine and (d) Oesophagus have epithelial lining and smooth muscle layers, but not characteristic myoepithelial cells of glands.
(b) Trachea contains respiratory epithelium, cartilage, and seromucous glands, but the standard single best answer for myoepithelial cells is the mammary gland.
Endotoxaemia in animal produces:
A)
Neutrophilia
B)
Leucocytosis
C)
Neutropenia
D)
Leukopenia
Endotoxaemia, caused by endotoxins from Gram-negative bacteria, commonly produces an acute inflammatory response in animals. One of the early hematological effects is sequestration and margination of neutrophils in blood vessels and tissues, leading to a fall in circulating neutrophils, i.e., neutropenia.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Neutrophilia is more typical in later stages of inflammation when bone marrow release increases. (b) Leucocytosis means total WBC increase, which is not the characteristic early change in endotoxaemia. (d) Leukopenia can occur in severe cases, but the most specific and expected change asked here is neutropenia.
Which of the following drug can be safely used to treat Giardiasis in dogs?
A)
Ivermectin
B)
Fenbendazole
C)
Albendazole
D)
Metronidazole
Giardiasis in dogs is commonly treated with fenbendazole because it is effective against Giardia and is considered safe for canine use. Metronidazole has also been used, but fenbendazole is generally preferred as the safer routine option in veterinary practice. Ivermectin is mainly used against nematodes and ectoparasites, not Giardia. Albendazole is not preferred in dogs because of potential toxicity, especially bone marrow suppression and teratogenic effects.
Stenson’s duct opens opposite to:
A)
2nd lower molar
B)
2nd upper molar
C)
2nd upper incisor
D)
2nd lower incisor
Stenson’s duct is the parotid salivary duct. It opens into the vestibule of the mouth on a small papilla opposite the upper second molar tooth. Therefore, option (b) is correct.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) 2nd lower molar: parotid duct does not open in the lower jaw.
- (c) 2nd upper incisor: the opening is much farther back, not near the incisors.
- (d) 2nd lower incisor: incorrect site and wrong jaw.
Hypotension following surgery results from:
A)
Pneumothorax
B)
Hypocalcaemia
C)
Internal haemorrhage
D)
All of these
Postoperative hypotension can occur due to several causes:
1. Pneumothorax can reduce venous return and cardiac output, leading to low blood pressure.
2. Hypocalcaemia can impair myocardial and vascular smooth muscle function, contributing to hypotension.
3. Internal haemorrhage causes loss of circulating blood volume, which is a major cause of postoperative hypotension.
Since all the listed conditions can result in hypotension following surgery, the correct answer is (d) All of these.
The curled toe paralysis in poultry is observed in deficiency of:
A)
Vitamin B6
B)
Vitamin B2
C)
Vitamin B1
D)
Vitamin B12
Curled toe paralysis in poultry is a classic sign of riboflavin deficiency, i.e., Vitamin B2 deficiency. Riboflavin is essential for normal nerve function; its deficiency causes degeneration of peripheral nerves, leading to the characteristic inward curling of toes and difficulty in walking.
Why others are incorrect: Vitamin B6 deficiency is more associated with nervous signs and poor growth, Vitamin B1 deficiency causes polyneuritis and star-gazing in birds, and Vitamin B12 deficiency mainly causes poor growth, anemia, and reduced hatchability rather than curled toe paralysis.
Abnormally increased appetite is:
A)
Hyperorexia
B)
Anorexia
C)
Polydipsia
D)
Polyphagia
Polyphagia means abnormally increased appetite or excessive eating. इसलिए सही उत्तर (d) है.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) Hyperorexia: increased appetite is sometimes used in a similar sense, but the standard clinical term commonly used for excessive hunger/appetite is polyphagia.
- (b) Anorexia: loss of appetite.
- (c) Polydipsia: excessive thirst, not appetite.
Uterus is susceptible to infection in which phase?
A)
Luteal phase
B)
Follicular phase
C)
Proestrus
D)
Estrus
The uterus is most susceptible to infection during the luteal phase because progesterone is dominant in this phase. Progesterone reduces uterine contractions, closes the cervix, and lowers local uterine defense mechanisms, which favors retention of pathogens and development of uterine infection. In contrast, during the follicular phase/estrus, estrogen predominates, the cervix is more open, uterine tone is higher, and resistance to infection is better. Therefore, options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect.
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for gustation?
A)
Glossopharyngeal
B)
Olfactory
C)
Trochlear
D)
None of these
Gustation means the sense of taste. The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) carries taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, so it is responsible for gustation among the given options.
Why others are incorrect:
- Olfactory nerve: responsible for smell, not taste.
- Trochlear nerve: supplies the superior oblique muscle of the eye; it is a motor nerve.
- None of these: incorrect because glossopharyngeal is the correct option.
Most of the umbilical hernias can be primarily closed with:
A)
Horizontal mattress suture
B)
Simple interrupted suture
C)
Tension relieving suture patterns
D)
All of these
Most umbilical hernias, especially small and uncomplicated ones, are primarily closed by apposing the hernial ring with simple interrupted sutures. This pattern provides secure closure, allows accurate tissue alignment, and if one knot fails, the whole repair does not fail. Horizontal mattress and other tension-relieving patterns are mainly chosen when the defect is under tension or the opening is larger, so they are not the usual primary choice for most cases. Therefore, option (b) is correct, while (a) and (c) are situation-specific, making (d) incorrect.
Ballottement is nothing but:
A)
Palpation
B)
Percussion
C)
Combination of the above two (a) & (b)
D)
None of these
Ballottement is a clinical examination method in which a sharp push is given to a body part or cavity and the returning impulse is felt. It effectively combines percussion-like tapping with palpation-like feeling of the rebound. Therefore, it is considered a combination of palpation and percussion. Option (a) and (b) alone are incomplete, and (d) is incorrect.
Laparotomy Incision site in large animal for intestinal obstruction is in the:
A)
Left flank
B)
Right flank
C)
Caudal midline
D)
All of these
In large animals, exploratory laparotomy for intestinal obstruction is most commonly performed through the right flank. This approach gives better access to the small intestine, caecum, and much of the intestinal tract where obstruction commonly occurs.
Why others are incorrect:
- Left flank: more commonly used for rumen-related surgery such as rumenotomy.
- Caudal midline: more common in small animals, not the usual approach for intestinal obstruction in large animals.
- All of these: incorrect because the standard answer for large animal intestinal obstruction is specifically the right flank.