← Veterinary
Past Questions — 2021
Red and haemorrhagic occur within __________ due to bruising in animals.
A)
0 – 10 hours.
B)
Approximately 24 hours.
C)
24 – 38 hours old.
D)
More than 3 days old.
In meat inspection, the colour and appearance of bruises change with time. Fresh bruises are red and haemorrhagic and are seen within the first few hours after injury, typically about 0–10 hours. After that, they become darker and later change to bluish, greenish, and yellowish as they age. Hence option (a) is correct.
Assurance that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is prepared and / or eaten according to its intended use.
A)
Food hygiene
B)
Food Safety
C)
Milk hygiene
D)
Meat hygiene
The statement defines **food safety**: assurance that food will not cause harm to the consumer when prepared and/or eaten according to its intended use.
- **Food hygiene** refers to the conditions and measures necessary to ensure food remains safe and fit for consumption.
- **Milk hygiene** and **meat hygiene** are specific branches dealing only with milk and meat, respectively.
Therefore, the correct answer is **(b) Food Safety**.
A serological test in which there is no involvement of antiboby.
A)
Haemagglutination test
B)
Haemagglutination inhibition test
C)
Complement fixation test
D)
ELISA test
A direct haemagglutination test detects the ability of antigen to agglutinate red blood cells and does not require antibody involvement. In contrast, haemagglutination inhibition test, complement fixation test, and ELISA all depend on antigen–antibody reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is Haemagglutination test.
The blotting technique used for the detection of specific DNA sequence is called __________.
A)
Southern blotting
B)
Western blotting
C)
Northern blotting
D)
Eastern blotting
Southern blotting is the blotting technique used to detect a specific DNA sequence. In this method, DNA fragments are separated by electrophoresis, transferred to a membrane, and probed with a labeled complementary DNA/RNA probe. Western blotting is used for proteins, Northern blotting for RNA, and Eastern blotting is not the standard technique for DNA detection.
Insects which possess sponging mouth parts and do not bite.
A)
Fleas
B)
House flies
C)
Mosquitoes
D)
Deer flies
House flies have sponging mouthparts and feed by lapping or sponging up liquid or dissolved food; they do not bite. Fleas and deer flies are biting insects, while mosquitoes have piercing and sucking mouthparts, not sponging mouthparts.
The first pig death due to African Swine Fever in Mizoram was reported officially by Government of Mizoram on 21st March, 2021 at __________.
A)
Lengte village
B)
Lungpher village
C)
Lungsen village
D)
None of these
The first official pig death due to African Swine Fever (ASF) in Mizoram was reported by the Government of Mizoram on 21 March 2021 at Lungsen village. Hence, option (c) is correct. The other options, Lengte and Lungpher, are not the first officially reported ASF death location for that date.
Inclusion bodies in fowl pox are known as __________.
A)
Negri bodies
B)
Bollinger bodies
C)
Elementary bodies
D)
None of these
In fowl pox, the characteristic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are called Bollinger bodies. Negri bodies are seen in rabies, and elementary bodies are associated with chlamydial infections, not fowl pox. Therefore, the correct answer is Bollinger bodies.
According to CDC the biosafety guidelines for SARS-CoV-2 (Covid-19) virus isolation, culturing and characterization should be done in __________ laboratory.
A)
Biosafety level -1
B)
Biosafety level -2
C)
Biosafety level -3
D)
Biosafety level - 4 .
CDC guidance states that work involving SARS-CoV-2 virus isolation, culturing, and characterization should be performed in a Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) laboratory, with appropriate containment practices. BSL-1 is for agents not known to cause disease in healthy adults, BSL-2 is for moderate-risk agents, and BSL-4 is reserved for dangerous/exotic agents with high risk and no available treatment.
The first immunoglobulin made by the fetus.
A)
IgE
B)
Ig G
C)
Ig A
D)
Ig M
The first immunoglobulin produced by the fetus is IgM. It is the earliest antibody class to appear during primary immune response and is also the first one synthesized in fetal life. IgG is mainly transferred from the mother across the placenta, while IgA and IgE appear later.
__________ inhibits growth hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary.
A)
ACTH
B)
Oestrogen
C)
Thyroxin
D)
None of these
Growth hormone (GH) secretion from the anterior pituitary is mainly inhibited by somatostatin (growth hormone-inhibiting hormone) from the hypothalamus. None of the given options—ACTH, oestrogen, or thyroxin—specifically inhibits GH secretion. In fact, oestrogen and thyroxin generally support growth-related processes rather than inhibit GH release. Therefore, the correct answer is 'None of these.'
Man acts as an intermediate host for __________.
A)
Taenia solium
B)
Taenia saginata
C)
Both Taenia solium and Taenia saginata
D)
None of these
Man acts as an intermediate host for Taenia solium when he ingests the eggs and the larval cysticerci develop in human tissues (cysticercosis). In Taenia saginata, man is the definitive host and cattle are the intermediate host. Therefore, only Taenia solium is correct.
Flight and fight syndrome due to stress in animals results in __________.
A)
Hyperglycemia and ketosis
B)
Toxaemia
C)
Both (a) and (b)
D)
None of these
In fight-or-flight stress, adrenaline and cortisol increase glycogenolysis and lipolysis. This raises blood glucose, causing hyperglycemia, and promotes fat breakdown, which can lead to ketone body formation and ketosis. Toxaemia is not a direct result of the fight-or-flight response, so option (b) is incorrect, and therefore (c) is also incorrect.
Passive hyperemia is the accumulation of blood in the __________.
A)
Arteries
B)
Lymphatics
C)
Veins
D)
None of these
Passive hyperemia (congestion) is the accumulation of blood due to impaired venous return, so blood collects in the veins and capillaries of an organ or tissue. It is not an arterial phenomenon. Lymphatics carry lymph, not blood, so option (b) is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is veins.
The vector for Visceral Leishmaniasis is __________.
A)
Tsetse fly
B)
Black fly
C)
Sand fly
D)
None of these
Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) is transmitted by the bite of infected female sand flies, especially Phlebotomus species in the Old World. Tsetse fly transmits trypanosomiasis, black fly transmits onchocerciasis, and therefore the correct vector here is sand fly.
__________ is an adverse drug reaction when a drug is administered repeatedly and/or in large doses. Eg. Deafness following dihydrostreptomycin.
A)
Side effects
B)
Untoward effects
C)
Toxic effects
D)
Allergic effects
An adverse drug reaction that occurs when a drug is given repeatedly and/or in large doses is called a toxic effect. Toxicity is dose-related and may damage tissues or organs; deafness after dihydrostreptomycin is a classic example of ototoxicity. Side effects are usually secondary effects at normal doses, untoward effects is a general term, and allergic effects are immune-mediated and not dose-dependent.
Inability of the tissue to utilize oxygen commonly occurs in cyanide poisoning.
A)
Anoxic anoxia
B)
Anaemic anoxia
C)
Stagnant anoxia
D)
Histotoxic anoxia
Cyanide poisoning prevents tissue cells from using oxygen by inhibiting cytochrome oxidase in the electron transport chain. So even though oxygen may be present in the blood, the tissues cannot utilize it. This condition is called histotoxic anoxia. Anoxic anoxia means lack of oxygen in blood, anaemic anoxia means reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, and stagnant anoxia means reduced blood flow.
The molecular diagnostic technique used for both qualitative and quantitative analysis of a targeted DNA molecule.
A)
RT- PCR
B)
LAMP
C)
Real time PCR
D)
Multiplex PCR
Real-time PCR (qPCR) is used for both qualitative and quantitative analysis of a target DNA molecule because it detects amplification during each cycle, allowing measurement of the amount of starting DNA. RT-PCR is mainly for RNA detection after reverse transcription, LAMP is primarily a rapid amplification method, and multiplex PCR detects multiple targets simultaneously but is not the standard technique for quantitative analysis.
Dose of drug that produces 50% of its maximum response or effect.
A)
EC50
B)
LD50
C)
ED50
D)
IC50
EC50 means the effective concentration of a drug that produces 50% of its maximum response. In pharmacology, this is the standard term for the concentration producing half-maximal effect. ED50 refers to the dose producing the desired effect in 50% of a population, LD50 is the lethal dose for 50% of a population, and IC50 is the concentration that inhibits 50% of a biological process.
The avian (birds) has __________ which help them in respiration.
A)
Lungs only
B)
Small lungs with air sacs
C)
Air sacs only
D)
None of these
Birds respire with small, compact lungs assisted by a system of air sacs. These air sacs act like bellows, helping maintain a continuous flow of air through the lungs and making respiration very efficient. Hence, the correct answer is 'Small lungs with air sacs'. 'Lungs only' is incomplete because birds have air sacs too, and 'Air sacs only' is incorrect because gas exchange occurs in the lungs, not in the sacs alone.
Liver coccidiosis in rabbits is caused by __________.
A)
Eimeria tenella
B)
Eimeria necatrix
C)
Eimeria stiedae
D)
None of these
Liver coccidiosis in rabbits is caused by Eimeria stiedae, which specifically infects the bile ducts and liver. Eimeria tenella mainly causes cecal coccidiosis in chickens, and Eimeria necatrix also affects chickens, not rabbits. Therefore, the correct answer is Eimeria stiedae.
The post bite vaccination of Rabies recommended by National Rabies Control Programme (NRCP), 2019.
A)
0, 3, 7, 14 and 28 days
B)
0, 3, 7, 14, 28 and 56 days
C)
0, 7, 14, 28 and 56 days
D)
0, 7, 14 and 28 days
Under the National Rabies Control Programme (NRCP), 2019, the recommended post-bite (post-exposure) anti-rabies vaccination schedule was the 5-dose regimen on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28. Therefore, option (a) is correct. Options (b), (c), and (d) do not match the standard NRCP 2019 schedule.
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