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Past Questions — 2025
Who was known as the “Father of Indian Renaissance”?
A)
Raja Rammohan Roy
B)
MN Roy
C)
Rabindra Tagore
D)
Swami Vivekanand
Raja Rammohan Roy is widely regarded as the 'Father of Indian Renaissance' because of his pioneering efforts to modernize Indian society and reform Hindu religious practices. He founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828, campaigned vigorously against the practice of Sati (which was abolished in 1829), advocated for women's rights, and promoted Western education and monotheism.
Why other options are incorrect:
- MN Roy: He was a prominent revolutionary and philosopher who founded the Communist Party of India and later developed the philosophy of Radical Humanism.
- Rabindra Tagore: He was a polymath, poet, and the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature (1913), known for his contributions to literature and education (Visva-Bharati University).
- Swami Vivekanand: He was a key figure in introducing Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world and founded the Ramakrishna Mission, focusing on spiritual awakening and social service.
NABARD was established on the recommendation of -
A)
Narashimham Committee
B)
Shivaraman Committee
C)
Public Accounts Committee
D)
None of the above
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established on October 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee. Its primary purpose was to create a dedicated apex regulatory body to coordinate the financing of agriculture, small scale industries, cottage and village industries, and handicrafts in rural areas.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Narashimham Committee: This committee was appointed to suggest reforms in the Indian banking sector (Banking Sector Reforms), focusing on prudential norms, interest rate deregulation, and the autonomy of banks.
- Public Accounts Committee: This is a parliamentary committee that examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India to ensure government expenditure is legal and efficient; it does not recommend the establishment of financial institutions.
National Policy for persons with disabilities was framed in the year
A)
2005
B)
2006
C)
2007
D)
2008
The National Policy for Persons with Disabilities was framed and notified by the Government of India in the year 2006. The primary objective of this policy was to ensure the equality of persons with disabilities and to provide them with equal opportunities in all spheres of life, focusing on barriers-free environments, education, employment, and social security.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 2005: Incorrect. While various amendments to disability laws were discussed around this time, the specific National Policy was not framed in 2005.
- Option (b) 2006: Correct. This is the year the National Policy for Persons with Disabilities was officially formulated.
- Option (c) 2007: Incorrect.
- Option (d) 2008: Incorrect. (Note: The UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities was ratified by India in 2007, which later led to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, but the National Policy itself dates to 2006).
The iron-ore mined at Bailadila in Chhattisgarh is mostly-
A)
Hematite
B)
Magnetite
C)
Siderite
D)
Limonite
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Location Analysis**: Bailadila is located in the Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh. It is one of the most significant iron-ore mining regions in India.
2. **Ore Quality**: The iron ore found in the Bailadila range is renowned for its exceptionally high grade (high iron content), often exceeding 60-65%.
3. **Mineral Identification**: High-grade iron ore found in the Indian shield, particularly in the Bastar plateau (Bailadila), is primarily Hematite. Hematite is the most important industrial iron ore in India due to its high iron content and suitability for blast furnaces.
4. **Evaluating Other Options**:
- **Magnetite (b)**: While found in India (primarily in Karnataka and Odisha), it is not the dominant ore at Bailadila.
- **Siderite (c)**: This is a lower-grade carbonate ore and is not the primary commercial ore mined at this site.
- **Limonite (d)**: This is a hydrated iron oxide and is not the characteristic ore of the Bailadila deposits.
Conclusion: The Bailadila mines are famous for producing high-grade Hematite ore, much of which is exported to Japan via the Visakhapatnam port.
________ aids protection of Constitutional provisions from the government assaults.
A)
Judicial Review
B)
Judicial Activism
C)
Judicial Power
D)
Judicial Silence
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analysis of the requirement: The question asks for the mechanism that protects Constitutional provisions from 'government assaults' (meaning arbitrary laws or executive actions that violate the Constitution).
2. Defining Judicial Review: Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders. If a law or order is found to be in conflict with the Constitution, the court can declare it 'null and void' or 'unconstitutional'. This acts as a check and balance against the government.
3. Evaluating other options:
- Judicial Activism (b): This refers to the judiciary taking a proactive role in protecting rights or filling legislative gaps, often by issuing directions to the government. While related, it is a philosophy/approach rather than the specific legal mechanism used to invalidate unconstitutional laws.
- Judicial Power (c): This is a general term referring to the authority of the courts to hear and decide cases; it is too broad to be the specific answer.
- Judicial Silence (d): This refers to the court's refusal to rule on a matter, which would actually fail to protect the Constitution from government assaults.
4. Conclusion: Judicial Review is the specific legal tool designed to ensure that the government operates within the boundaries of the Constitution.
Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India is related to
A)
Municipality
B)
Panchayati Raj
C)
Languages
D)
Religion
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India. Originally, it contained 14 languages, but through various amendments (21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendment Acts), it now recognizes 22 scheduled languages.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Municipality: Municipalities are governed by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act and are mentioned in Part IXA of the Constitution.
- Option (b) Panchayati Raj: Panchayati Raj Institutions are governed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act and are mentioned in Part IX of the Constitution.
- Option (d) Religion: Matters related to religion are primarily covered under Fundamental Rights (Articles 25-28) in Part III of the Constitution, not in the Eighth Schedule.
Which of the following monetary measures has the highest liquidity?
A)
Land
B)
Currency
C)
Debenture
D)
Gold
Liquidity refers to the ease and speed with which an asset can be converted into cash (the medium of exchange) without affecting its market price.
1. **Currency (Option b):** This is the most liquid asset because it is already in the form of cash. It can be used immediately for transactions without any conversion process. In monetary economics, currency is the benchmark for perfect liquidity.
2. **Gold (Option d):** While gold is highly liquid compared to real estate, it still requires a process to be sold or exchanged for currency, and its price may fluctuate during that process.
3. **Debentures (Option c):** These are debt instruments. To convert a debenture into cash, one must either wait for the maturity date or sell it in a secondary market, which takes time and may be subject to market volatility.
4. **Land (Option a):** Real estate is considered an illiquid asset. Selling land involves legal formalities, finding a buyer, and a lengthy closing process, often taking weeks or months.
Therefore, currency has the highest liquidity.
Which of the following defines depreciation?
A)
Destruction of a plant in a fire accident
B)
Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear
C)
Closure ofa plant due to labour trouble
D)
Closure ofa plant due to lockout
In economics and accounting, depreciation refers to the gradual decrease in the value of a physical asset over time. This occurs primarily due to three reasons: normal wear and tear from regular use, the passage of time (aging), and obsolescence (becoming outdated due to new technology).
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 'Destruction of a plant in a fire accident' is considered a 'capital loss' or an unexpected casualty, not depreciation, as it is a sudden event rather than a gradual process.
- Option (b) 'Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear' perfectly describes the definition of depreciation (consumption of fixed capital).
- Option (c) 'Closure of a plant due to labour trouble' and Option (d) 'Closure of a plant due to lockout' refer to operational shutdowns or industrial disputes, which affect production and income but do not define the physical or monetary devaluation of the asset itself.
Rajya Sabha has got equal powers like the Lok Sabha in the matter of
A)
creating new all India service
B)
amending the constitution
C)
removal of government
D)
making cut motion
In the Indian Parliamentary system, the Lok Sabha (Lower House) generally holds more power than the Rajya Sabha (Upper House), particularly in financial matters. However, there are specific areas where they possess equal powers:
1. **Amending the Constitution (Option b):** Under Article 368, a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority. There is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock over a constitutional amendment; therefore, the Rajya Sabha has an absolute veto, making its power equal to that of the Lok Sabha in this matter.
**Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option a (Creating new All India Services):** While the Rajya Sabha has a special power under Article 312 to initiate the process by passing a resolution, the actual creation of the service is an executive action following the resolution. This is a 'special power' of the Rajya Sabha rather than an 'equal power'.
- **Option c (Removal of government):** The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha. A 'No-Confidence Motion' can only be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the government from power.
- **Option d (Making cut motion):** Cut motions are related to the 'Demands for Grants' (Financial Bills/Budget). Money Bills and demands for grants are the exclusive domain of the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on demands for grants or move cut motions.
The Second Industrial Policy Resolution was passed in the Parliament in which of the following year?
A)
1963
B)
1956
C)
1958
D)
1955
The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) of 1956 is widely regarded as the 'Economic Constitution of India'. It was the second major industrial policy resolution passed by the Government of India (the first being in 1948). The 1956 resolution aimed to establish a 'socialist pattern of society' and categorized industries into three schedules: Schedule A (exclusive state monopoly), Schedule B (state-led but private sector allowed), and Schedule C (private sector).
Analysis of options:
- 1963: Not the year of a major Industrial Policy Resolution.
- 1956: Correct. This resolution shifted the focus toward heavy industries and state-led planning.
- 1958: Not the year of the Second Industrial Policy Resolution.
- 1955: While the Industrial Policy Committee was active during this period, the formal Resolution was passed in 1956.
Which institution is not a Local Self Government?
A)
Panchayati Raj
B)
Municipal Council
C)
Municipal Corporation
D)
Zonal Council
Local Self Government (LSG) refers to the administration of local areas by elected representatives of the local people. In India, this is divided into two main categories: Rural Local Government (Panchayati Raj) and Urban Local Government (Municipalities).
1. Panchayati Raj (Option a): This is the system of rural local self-government established under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
2. Municipal Council (Option b): This is a form of urban local self-government for smaller cities or towns, established under the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
3. Municipal Corporation (Option c): This is the form of urban local self-government for large metropolitan cities, also established under the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
4. Zonal Council (Option d): Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established by the Government of India under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. They are advisory bodies designed to promote cooperation and coordination between different states within a specific zone. They are not 'local' governments nor are they 'self-governing' bodies elected by the local populace; rather, they are inter-state coordination mechanisms.
Constitutional Reservations are provided to SCs and STs in proportion to their
A)
Population size
B)
Deprivation status
C)
Economic Demands
D)
Social Backwardness
Under the Constitution of India, reservations for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies are provided based on their proportion to the total population of the state or country. This is explicitly mentioned in Article 330 (for Lok Sabha) and Article 332 (for State Legislative Assemblies).
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Deprivation status: While deprivation is the reason why these groups are identified as SCs/STs, the quantitative calculation for the number of seats reserved is based on population, not a 'deprivation index'.
- c. Economic Demands: Reservations for SCs/STs are based on historical social exclusion and caste, not current economic demands (Economic criteria are primarily used for EWS reservations).
- d. Social Backwardness: Social and educational backwardness is the primary criterion for identifying 'Other Backward Classes' (OBCs) under Article 340, but the specific constitutional quota for SCs/STs in legislatures is strictly proportional to their population.
Vice President of India presides over the Sessions.
A)
Parliament
B)
Lok Sabha
C)
Rajya Sabha
D)
Cabinet
According to the Constitution of India, the Vice President of India holds a dual role. Under Article 64, the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Council of States). In this capacity, the Vice President presides over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha, maintains order in the house, and interprets the rules of procedure.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Parliament: The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha. No single person presides over the 'Parliament' as a whole; rather, each house has its own presiding officer.
- b. Lok Sabha: The sessions of the Lok Sabha are presided over by the Speaker, who is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves.
- d. Cabinet: The Cabinet is the core group of ministers who head the executive branch. Its meetings are presided over by the Prime Minister of India.
Jawaharlal Nehru was the major advocate of Planning and
A)
Industrialization
B)
Agriculture
C)
Village Economy
D)
Service sector
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, was a strong believer in the 'Mahalanobis Model' of development, which emphasized heavy industrialization. He viewed large-scale industries (which he famously called the 'temples of modern India') as the primary engine for economic growth and self-reliance, aiming to move India away from a purely agrarian economy to a modern industrial state. While he acknowledged the importance of agriculture, his strategic vision for national development was centered on planned industrialization and the growth of the public sector.
- Option (b) Agriculture: While Nehru implemented land reforms, his primary 'advocacy' for national transformation was industrialization.
- Option (c) Village Economy: This was the primary vision of Mahatma Gandhi (Gram Swaraj), which often contrasted with Nehru's vision of urban industrialization.
- Option (d) Service sector: The service sector became dominant much later in India's economic history (post-1990s) and was not the focus of Nehru's planning era.
Which of the following railway zones in India carries the maximum freight traffic?
A)
Eastern
B)
Western
C)
Northern
D)
Southern
The Eastern Railway zone carries the maximum freight traffic in India primarily due to its geographical location and the nature of the commodities transported. The Eastern zone covers the mineral-rich belt of India, including the Chota Nagpur Plateau region. This area is the heart of India's coal, iron ore, and steel production. Since coal is the primary fuel for thermal power plants across the country and a major raw material for the steel industry, the volume of bulk freight (especially coal) transported through the Eastern Railway is significantly higher than in any other zone.
- Western Railway: Handles significant container traffic via ports (like JNPT), but not the same volume of bulk minerals as the East.
- Northern Railway: Handles high passenger traffic and some freight, but lacks the concentrated mineral density of the East.
- Southern Railway: Handles diverse freight but lacks the massive bulk coal movement characteristic of the Eastern zone.
Which town in Mizoram is located on the bank of Khawthlangtuipui River?
A)
Mamit
B)
Zawlnuam
C)
Siaha
D)
Tlabung
The Khawthlangtuipui River (also known as the Kaladan River in other regions) is a major river that forms a natural boundary between India (Mizoram) and Myanmar. The town of Zawlnuam is located specifically on the banks of this river in the Champhai district of Mizoram.
Analysis of other options:
- Mamit: Located in the Mamit district, primarily associated with the river systems flowing towards the Chindwin basin, but not the primary town on the Khawthlangtuipui.
- Siaha: Located in the southern part of Mizoram, far from the Khawthlangtuipui river system.
- Tlabung: Located on the banks of the river known as the Tlawng or its tributaries, not the Khawthlangtuipui.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi suspend the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922?
A)
Repression by the British government
B)
Internal divisions within the Congress
C)
The Chauri Chaura incident involving violence
D)
Limited support from rural areas
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922) was launched by Mahatma Gandhi based on the principle of 'Ahimsa' (non-violence).
2. On February 4, 1922, at Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur district (Uttar Pradesh), a peaceful procession turned violent after clashes with the police. The mob set fire to a police station, resulting in the deaths of 22 policemen.
3. Gandhi, who believed that the movement should remain strictly non-violent and that the Indian people were not yet fully trained in the discipline of non-violence, was deeply distressed by this event.
4. Consequently, he decided to suspend the movement immediately to prevent further bloodshed and to maintain the moral integrity of the struggle.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): While the British government did use repression, Gandhi did not suspend the movement because of it; rather, he suspended it because the movement itself had turned violent.
- Option (b): While there were internal debates (especially later regarding the Swaraj Party), these were not the primary cause for the sudden suspension in 1922.
- Option (d): The movement actually saw unprecedented support from rural areas, making this statement factually incorrect.
In India, Coffee is mainly cultivated in the-
A)
Northern region
B)
Southern region
C)
Western region
D)
Northeast region
Coffee cultivation in India is heavily concentrated in the Southern region, specifically in the states of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. The ideal conditions for coffee growth—moderate temperatures, high rainfall, and well-drained loamy soil—are found in the Western Ghats and the Nilgiri Hills of South India. Karnataka alone accounts for the vast majority of India's coffee production.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Northern region: The climate is generally too extreme (very hot summers and cold winters) for coffee, which prefers a tropical/sub-tropical highland climate.
- Western region: While some parts of the west are coastal, the specific mountainous terrain and rainfall patterns required for coffee are concentrated further south in the Western Ghats.
- Northeast region: While the Northeast is famous for tea cultivation, it is not the primary hub for commercial coffee production in India.
All Members of Parliament alone elect the
A)
Vice President
B)
President
C)
Prime Minister
D)
Chief Justice
The election of the Vice President of India is governed by Article 66 of the Indian Constitution. The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). This includes both elected and nominated members.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. President: The President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament AND the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (and UTs of Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated members do not participate.
- c. Prime Minister: The Prime Minister is not elected by Parliament; they are appointed by the President. Usually, the leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Lok Sabha is appointed.
- d. Chief Justice: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India based on the recommendation of the Collegium system, not elected by Parliament.
Which of the following states has produced Rice after the Green Revolution only?
A)
West Bengal
B)
Uttar Pradesh
C)
Punjab
D)
Tamil Nadu
The Green Revolution, introduced in India in the mid-1960s, focused on increasing agricultural productivity through High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, irrigation, and chemical fertilizers.
1. **Punjab**: Historically, Punjab was primarily a wheat-growing region due to its semi-arid climate and soil. However, with the introduction of the Green Revolution and the development of extensive canal irrigation systems, Punjab shifted significantly toward rice cultivation. The adoption of HYV rice varieties made it possible to grow rice on a commercial scale in a region where it was not traditionally the dominant crop.
2. **West Bengal**: This is a traditional rice-growing state. Rice has been the staple crop of the Gangetic delta and West Bengal long before the Green Revolution due to the naturally high rainfall and alluvial soil.
3. **Uttar Pradesh**: Like West Bengal, UP has a long history of rice cultivation in its eastern and central plains due to favorable climatic conditions and river systems.
4. **Tamil Nadu**: Rice is the traditional staple of South India. The Kaveri delta has been producing rice for centuries, well before the 1960s.
Therefore, Punjab is the state that saw a massive surge and systemic shift toward rice production specifically as a result of the technological interventions of the Green Revolution.
After the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1992, which institutions had become constitutionally strengthened?
A)
Municipalities
B)
Panchayat Raj
C)
Planning Commission
D)
NITI Aayog
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 was specifically enacted to grant constitutional status to urban local governments, known as Municipalities. It added Part IX-A to the Constitution of India and inserted the 12th Schedule, which lists the powers and responsibilities of municipalities.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (b) Panchayat Raj: This was strengthened by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which dealt with rural local governments (Part IX).
- Option (c) Planning Commission: This was a non-constitutional, non-statutory advisory body established by a government resolution in 1950; it was not created or strengthened by a constitutional amendment.
- Option (d) NITI Aayog: This is a policy think tank established by the Government of India via a cabinet resolution on January 1, 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. It is not a constitutional body.
Which of the following industry provides job to the maximum number of people?
A)
Iron and Steel Industry
B)
Cotton Textiles
C)
Sugar Industry
D)
Tea Processing
In the context of Indian geography and industrial economics, the Cotton Textile industry is one of the oldest and largest organized industries in India. It is highly labor-intensive, involving a vast chain of workers from ginning and spinning to weaving and processing. Historically and statistically, it employs more people than the other listed options.
1. Cotton Textiles (Option b): It is a massive employer due to the decentralized nature of powerlooms and handlooms, as well as large-scale composite mills.
2. Iron and Steel (Option a): While it is a 'basic' industry, it is highly capital-intensive and relies more on automation and heavy machinery than on a massive manual workforce compared to textiles.
3. Sugar Industry (Option c): While it employs many seasonal workers, its overall scale of permanent industrial employment is lower than textiles.
4. Tea Processing (Option d): This is a plantation-based industry. While it employs many people in the fields, the 'processing' (industrial) phase employs significantly fewer people than the textile sector.
How many members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India?
A)
284
B)
294
C)
274
D)
244
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. While the total membership of the Assembly varied over time (initially 389 members before the partition of India), the final version of the Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, and signed on January 24, 1950. On that final day, 284 members were present and signed the official document. Therefore, the number of signatories to the Constitution of India is 284. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not correspond to the historical record of the final signing ceremony.
Which part of India receives the lowest annual rainfall?
A)
Meghalaya
B)
Manipur
C)
Jammu and Kashmir
D)
Ladakh
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. Analysis of Rainfall Patterns: India's rainfall is primarily driven by the Southwest Monsoon. Regions that are shielded from these moisture-bearing winds (rain-shadow areas) or located in high-altitude cold deserts receive the least precipitation. 2. Evaluating Options: (a) Meghalaya: Home to Mawsynram and Cherrapunji, it is the wettest place on Earth. (b) Manipur: Located in the Northeast, it receives significant rainfall from the monsoon. (c) Jammu and Kashmir: While some parts are dry, the valley and southern regions receive moderate precipitation. (d) Ladakh: Ladakh is a high-altitude cold desert. It lies in the rain shadow area of the Great Himalayas, which block the moisture-laden monsoon winds from the south. Consequently, it receives extremely low annual precipitation (often less than 100mm). 3. Conclusion: Among the given options, Ladakh is the driest region.
The 1 Plan Holiday in independent India covered the period -
A)
1966 -— 1969
B)
1965 — 1968
C)
1964 - 1968
D)
1965 — 1969
In the history of Indian economic planning, the 'Plan Holiday' refers to a period when the government could not implement a full-scale Five-Year Plan due to economic instability, severe droughts, and the devaluation of the rupee.
1. The First Five-Year Plan ran from 1951 to 1956.
2. The Second Five-Year Plan ran from 1956 to 1961.
3. The Third Five-Year Plan ran from 1961 to 1966.
Following the Third Plan, India faced significant crises, including the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 and severe food shortages. Consequently, instead of launching the Fourth Five-Year Plan immediately, the government implemented three Annual Plans from 1966 to 1969. This three-year gap is known as the 'Plan Holiday'. The Fourth Five-Year Plan subsequently began in 1969 and lasted until 1974.
Therefore, option (a) 1966 - 1969 is the correct period.