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Past Questions — 2025
NABARD was established on the recommendation of -
A)
Narashimham Committee
B)
Shivaraman Committee
C)
Public Accounts Committee
D)
None of the above
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established on October 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee. Its primary purpose was to create a dedicated apex regulatory body to coordinate the financing of agriculture, small scale industries, cottage and village industries, and handicrafts in rural areas.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Narashimham Committee: This committee was appointed to suggest reforms in the Indian banking sector (Banking Sector Reforms), focusing on prudential norms, interest rate deregulation, and the autonomy of banks.
- Public Accounts Committee: This is a parliamentary committee that examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India to ensure government expenditure is legal and efficient; it does not recommend the establishment of financial institutions.
To which group do the black soils of India belong?
A)
Alluvial
B)
Chernozem
C)
Lateritic
D)
Podzolic
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Black soils in India, also known as 'Regur soils', are primarily found in the Deccan Trap region (Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh).
2. These soils are formed from the weathering of volcanic basaltic rocks and are rich in calcium, magnesium, and iron.
3. Globally, the group of fertile, black, organic-rich soils found in semi-arid grasslands (like the steppes of Eurasia) is known as 'Chernozem' (from Russian 'chern' meaning black and 'zemlya' meaning earth).
4. Indian black soils share the same characteristics—high clay content, moisture retention, and high organic matter—as the global Chernozem group.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Alluvial soils are deposited by rivers and are distinct from the volcanic origin of black soils.
- c. Lateritic soils are formed by intense leaching in tropical areas with high rainfall and temperature, resulting in red/yellow colors.
- d. Podzolic soils are typically found in cool, moist climates (like coniferous forests) and are acidic and nutrient-poor.
The Second Industrial Policy Resolution was passed in the Parliament in which of the following year?
A)
1963
B)
1956
C)
1958
D)
1955
The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) of 1956 is widely regarded as the 'Economic Constitution of India'. It was the second major industrial policy resolution passed by the Government of India (the first being in 1948). The 1956 resolution aimed to establish a 'socialist pattern of society' and categorized industries into three schedules: Schedule A (exclusive state monopoly), Schedule B (state-led but private sector allowed), and Schedule C (private sector).
Analysis of options:
- 1963: Not the year of a major Industrial Policy Resolution.
- 1956: Correct. This resolution shifted the focus toward heavy industries and state-led planning.
- 1958: Not the year of the Second Industrial Policy Resolution.
- 1955: While the Industrial Policy Committee was active during this period, the formal Resolution was passed in 1956.
Which is the biggest multipurpose project of India in terms of the total command area?
A)
Nagarjuna Sagar
B)
Bhakra Nangal
C)
Damodar
D)
Krishnaraja Sagar
The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is one of the largest multipurpose river valley projects in India. When evaluating multipurpose projects based on the 'total command area' (the total area of land that can be irrigated by the project's canal system), Nagarjuna Sagar stands out as the largest among the given options. It is built across the Krishna River on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
Comparison of options:
- Nagarjuna Sagar: Known for having one of the largest command areas in India, providing irrigation to vast tracts of land in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
- Bhakra Nangal: While it is one of the highest gravity dams in the world and massive in terms of storage and power generation, its command area is smaller than that of Nagarjuna Sagar.
- Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC): This was India's first multipurpose project (modeled after the Tennessee Valley Authority), but it is a series of dams rather than a single project with a larger command area than Nagarjuna Sagar.
- Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS): A significant project in Karnataka, but much smaller in scale and command area compared to the others listed.
The summer monsoon winds travel east to west from Assam to Punjab because-
A)
The path of the winds is diverted by the Himalayas
B)
Assam has high pressure whereas Punjab has low pressure
C)
The summer monsoon winds originate in Assam
D)
Here the trade wind blows from east to west
During the summer monsoon, moisture-laden winds from the Bay of Bengal move towards the Indian landmass. As these winds move northward, they encounter the massive physical barrier of the Himalayas. Because the Himalayas act as a wall, the winds cannot cross over them into Central Asia. Consequently, the winds are deflected and forced to move westward across the Indo-Gangetic plains, traveling from Assam towards Punjab. This is why the eastern parts of India receive rainfall earlier than the western parts.
Analysis of other options:
- Option b is incorrect because the general movement of the monsoon is driven by the pressure gradient between the high-pressure ocean and the low-pressure landmass, not a specific pressure difference between Assam and Punjab.
- Option c is incorrect because the winds originate over the Indian Ocean/Bay of Bengal, not in Assam.
- Option d is incorrect because while trade winds generally blow east to west globally, the specific movement of the summer monsoon across the plains of India is a result of topographic diversion (the Himalayan barrier).
With which of the following did the ARDC merged with on 12 July, 1982?
A)
NABARD
B)
EXIM Bank
C)
RBI
D)
None of these
The Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC) was established in 1965 to provide refinance facilities to state cooperatives and other financial institutions for agricultural loans. On July 12, 1982, the Government of India established the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) as the apex regulatory body for the rural credit system. To consolidate the rural credit structure, the ARDC was merged into NABARD on the same date. Along with ARDC, several other regional rural banks and refinance agencies were integrated into NABARD to streamline agricultural credit and rural development in India.
Why other options are incorrect:
- EXIM Bank (Export-Import Bank of India) focuses on coordinating and promoting foreign trade.
- RBI (Reserve Bank of India) is the central bank of the country; while it oversees the banking system, the specific merger of the ARDC was designed to create a specialized apex body for rural development (NABARD).
Which initiative was launched to promote national integration and cultural diversity in India?
A)
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
B)
Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat
C)
Digital India Programme
D)
Make in India
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analyze the objective: The question asks for an initiative specifically designed to promote 'national integration' and 'cultural diversity'.
2. Evaluate Option (b): 'Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat' was launched by the Government of India (announced by PM Narendra Modi in 2015) with the primary goal of enhancing interaction and promoting mutual understanding between people of different states/UTs to celebrate the unity in diversity of our nation.
3. Evaluate Option (a): 'Swachh Bharat Abhiyan' is a national campaign focused on sanitation and cleanliness, not cultural integration.
4. Evaluate Option (c): 'Digital India Programme' is a campaign to ensure government services are made available to citizens electronically by improving online infrastructure and internet connectivity.
5. Evaluate Option (d): 'Make in India' is an initiative to encourage companies to manufacture their products in India and increase investment in the manufacturing sector.
6. Conclusion: Only 'Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat' aligns with the goals of national integration and cultural exchange.
How many members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India?
A)
284
B)
294
C)
274
D)
244
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. While the total membership of the Assembly varied over time (initially 389 members before the partition of India), the final version of the Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, and signed on January 24, 1950. On that final day, 284 members were present and signed the official document. Therefore, the number of signatories to the Constitution of India is 284. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not correspond to the historical record of the final signing ceremony.
What is the central concept of M.N. Roy’s Radical Humanism?
A)
Non-cooperation with colonial regimes
B)
Spiritual nationalism
C)
Class struggle as the basis for revolution
D)
Emphasis on individual freedom beyond political ideologies
M.N. Roy's philosophy of Radical Humanism (also known as New Humanism) evolved after his disillusionment with both nationalism and Marxism. The central tenet of this philosophy is the primacy of the individual. It posits that individual freedom, reason, and scientific rationality are the ultimate goals of society, moving beyond the constraints of class-based struggle (Marxism) or national identity (Nationalism).
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) refers to Gandhian strategies of resistance, not Roy's Radical Humanism.
- Option (b) is contrary to Roy's philosophy, as he emphasized scientific rationality and secularism over spiritualism.
- Option (c) describes Marxism/Communism. While Roy was once a prominent communist leader, Radical Humanism was his departure from the idea that class struggle is the sole driver of history.
- Option (d) correctly identifies the core of Radical Humanism: the liberation of the individual from all forms of collective domination, whether political, social, or ideological.
The 92nd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution added which of the following languages to the Eighth Schedule?
A)
Urdu
B)
Bodo
C)
Hindi
D)
Sanskrit
The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added four languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) Urdu: Was already part of the Eighth Schedule since the original constitution/early amendments.
- Option (b) Bodo: Correct. It was added via the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
- Option (c) Hindi: One of the primary official languages and part of the original Eighth Schedule.
- Option (d) Sanskrit: Part of the original Eighth Schedule.
Therefore, among the given options, Bodo is the only language added by the 92nd Amendment.
Which institution is not a Local Self Government?
A)
Panchayati Raj
B)
Municipal Council
C)
Municipal Corporation
D)
Zonaji Council
Local Self-Government (LSG) refers to the management of local affairs by elected representatives of the local people. In India, this is divided into two main categories: Rural Local Government and Urban Local Government.
1. Panchayati Raj (Option a): This is the system of rural local self-government in India, constitutionalized by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992. It operates at the village, block, and district levels.
2. Municipal Council (Option b): These are urban local bodies established for smaller cities or towns, constitutionalized by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
3. Municipal Corporation (Option c): These are urban local bodies established for large metropolitan cities, also part of the 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
4. Zonaji Council (Option d): There is no recognized constitutional or statutory body known as a 'Zonaji Council' within the framework of Indian Local Self-Government. It is a fictitious or incorrect term in the context of Indian Polity, making it the correct answer to the question 'Which institution is NOT a Local Self Government?'
Which one of the following statement is not correct?
A)
The reverse REPO rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows.
B)
The REPO and reverse REPO are instruments used by the RBI to regulate liquidity in the Market.
C)
A REPO is a sale and repurchase of the same securities between two parties.
D)
A REPO rate is the rate at which the commercial banks borrow from the Central Bank.
To identify the incorrect statement, let's analyze each option based on monetary policy definitions:
1. **Option (d) is correct**: The REPO (Repurchase Option) rate is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks against government securities.
2. **Option (c) is correct**: A REPO is technically a transaction where one party sells securities to another with an agreement to repurchase them at a future date at a specified price.
3. **Option (b) is correct**: Both REPO and Reverse REPO are primary tools of the RBI's monetary policy used to manage the amount of money (liquidity) circulating in the banking system.
4. **Option (a) is incorrect**: The Reverse REPO rate is NOT the rate at which the RBI borrows. Instead, it is the rate at which the RBI **lends** money to commercial banks (or more accurately, the rate at which the RBI accepts deposits from commercial banks to absorb excess liquidity from the market). The RBI does not 'borrow' in the traditional commercial sense; it manages liquidity by offering a rate to banks to park their funds.
Therefore, statement (a) is the incorrect one.
Which of the following is not a credit control objective of RBI?
A)
To achieve stability in the Country’s currency rate and money market.
B)
Controlling the business cycle and meeting the needs of the company.
C)
To achieve price stability.
D)
To meet financial obligations during a down turn in the economy as well as in regular times.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses credit control (monetary policy) to manage the macroeconomy.
1. Option (a) is a core objective: RBI manages the money supply and interest rates to ensure stability in the currency exchange rate and the money market.
2. Option (b) is a core objective: By adjusting credit flow, the RBI attempts to smooth out the business cycle (reducing the severity of booms and recessions) to ensure sustainable economic growth.
3. Option (c) is a core objective: Price stability (controlling inflation) is the primary mandate of the RBI's monetary policy framework.
4. Option (d) is INCORRECT because 'meeting financial obligations' refers to the liquidity management of an individual firm or a specific entity (micro-level financial management), not the objective of a central bank's credit control policy. The RBI controls the overall supply of credit in the economy; it does not exist to ensure that specific companies or individuals can meet their private financial obligations.
The primary sector within a country for the calculation of National Income includes -
A)
Small scale industries
B)
Retail trading
C)
Agriculture
D)
All of these
In economics, the economy is divided into three main sectors for the calculation of National Income:
1. **Primary Sector:** This sector involves the extraction and production of raw materials directly from nature. It includes activities such as Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing, and Mining. Since agriculture is the primary source of raw materials, it falls under this category.
2. **Secondary Sector:** This sector involves the processing of raw materials into finished goods (manufacturing). 'Small scale industries' (Option a) fall under the secondary sector because they involve manufacturing processes.
3. **Tertiary Sector:** This sector provides services to consumers and other businesses. 'Retail trading' (Option b) is a service-based activity and therefore falls under the tertiary sector.
Therefore, among the given options, only Agriculture belongs to the primary sector.
The Election Commission of India does not hold election for
A)
The Parliament
B)
State Legislative Assemblies
C)
Municipalities and the Panchayati Raj Institutions
D)
President and Vice-President
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a permanent constitutional body responsible for administering elections to the most important offices in the country.
1. **Parliament (Option a):** The ECI conducts elections for both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. **State Legislative Assemblies (Option b):** The ECI conducts elections for the Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad of the states.
3. **President and Vice-President (Option d):** The ECI is responsible for conducting the elections for the offices of the President and Vice-President of India.
4. **Municipalities and Panchayati Raj Institutions (Option c):** Elections to local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) are NOT conducted by the Election Commission of India. Instead, they are conducted by the **State Election Commission (SEC)** of the respective state, as mandated by Articles 243K and 243ZA of the Indian Constitution. This ensures the autonomy of local self-government.
The Goods and Service Tax (GST) has been implemented from -
A)
July 1, 2018
B)
October 1, 2018
C)
July 1, 2017
D)
October 1, 2017
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based indirect tax that was implemented in India to replace multiple central and state taxes (such as VAT, Service Tax, and Central Excise Duty) to create a unified common market. It officially came into effect on July 1, 2017.
- Option (a) July 1, 2018: Incorrect; GST was already operational for a year.
- Option (b) October 1, 2018: Incorrect.
- Option (c) July 1, 2017: Correct; this is the official date of implementation.
- Option (d) October 1, 2017: Incorrect.
Gandhi led three major pan-Indian movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and ________ against British Rule.
A)
Jai Hind
B)
Anti-British
C)
Anti-India
D)
Quit India
Mahatma Gandhi led three primary mass movements that galvanized the Indian population against British colonial rule:
1. The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922): Aimed at resisting British rule through non-violent means and boycotting British goods and institutions.
2. The Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-1934): Initiated with the Dandi March to protest the salt tax and break colonial laws.
3. The Quit India Movement (1942): A decisive movement demanding an immediate end to British rule in India, characterized by the slogan 'Do or Die'.
Analysis of other options:
- 'Jai Hind' is a patriotic salutation, not a movement.
- 'Anti-British' is a general description of the sentiment, not the specific name of a movement.
- 'Anti-India' is factually incorrect as the movements were for Indian independence, not against India.
How many members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India?
A)
284
B)
294
C)
274
D)
244
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. While the initial membership was higher, on January 24, 1950, the final session was held where the members signed the document. A total of 284 members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India. This number represents those who were present and participated in the final signing ceremony before the Constitution officially came into force on January 26, 1950. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not match the historical record of the signatories.
Which one of the following rights has been described by Dr. Ambedkar as “The heart and soul of the Constitution’?
A)
Right of Equality
B)
Right to freedom
C)
Right to property
D)
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the chief architect of the Indian Constitution, described the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) as the 'heart and soul of the Constitution'. This is because a right without a remedy is meaningless; Article 32 empowers citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through writs (such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, etc.), making the Fundamental Rights justifiable and enforceable.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Right of Equality: While fundamental, it is a category of rights, not the mechanism that protects all rights.
- b. Right to Freedom: This is a crucial set of liberties, but it lacks the 'remedial' power that Ambedkar highlighted.
- c. Right to Property: This was originally a fundamental right but was removed by the 44th Amendment Act (1978) and converted into a legal right under Article 300A.
Policy that deals with the taxation and expenditure decisions of the Government is-
A)
Monetary Policy
B)
Labour market Policies
C)
Trade Policy
D)
Fiscal Policy
The question asks for the policy that governs government taxation and expenditure.
1. **Fiscal Policy (Correct):** This is the means by which a government adjusts its spending levels and tax rates to monitor and influence a nation's economy. It involves two main tools: Government Expenditure (spending on infrastructure, healthcare, etc.) and Taxation (direct and indirect taxes).
2. **Monetary Policy (Incorrect):** This is managed by the Central Bank (e.g., RBI in India). It deals with the money supply, interest rates, and banking regulations to control inflation and stabilize the currency.
3. **Labour Market Policies (Incorrect):** These are policies designed to affect the supply and demand of labor, such as minimum wage laws, vocational training, and unemployment benefits.
4. **Trade Policy (Incorrect):** This refers to the regulations and agreements that constrain international trade, such as tariffs, quotas, and trade treaties.
The difference between Gross National Product and Depreciation is equal to-
A)
Net National Product
B)
Net Domestic at market price
C)
Net National Product at factor cost
D)
Net Value Added
In national income accounting, the fundamental relationship between 'Gross' and 'Net' concepts is the subtraction of depreciation (also known as Consumption of Fixed Capital).
1. **The Formula**: Net National Product (NNP) = Gross National Product (GNP) - Depreciation.
2. **Reasoning**: GNP measures the total value of all final goods and services produced by the residents of a country. However, during production, capital assets (like machinery and buildings) wear out over time. This wear and tear is called Depreciation. To find the 'Net' value (the actual addition to the wealth of the nation), we must subtract this depreciation from the 'Gross' value.
**Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option b (Net Domestic at market price)**: This refers to NDP (Net Domestic Product), which is derived from GDP (Gross Domestic Product), not GNP.
- **Option c (Net National Product at factor cost)**: This is specifically 'National Income'. To get this, you must subtract both Depreciation AND Indirect Taxes (while adding subsidies) from GNP. The question only mentions subtracting depreciation.
- **Option d (Net Value Added)**: This is a component used to calculate the total product of a specific industry or sector, not the aggregate national product.
Article 113 of the Constitution is related to-
A)
Appropriation Bill
B)
Finance Bill
C)
Demand for Grants
D)
None of these
Article 113 of the Constitution of India deals with the 'Procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates'. Under this article, the estimates of expenditure are presented to the Parliament, and the process of voting on these estimates is essentially the process of approving the 'Demands for Grants'. Specifically, it distinguishes between expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India (which is not submitted to vote) and expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India (which is submitted to the vote of Parliament in the form of demands for grants).
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Appropriation Bill: This is governed by Article 114, which provides the legal authority to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India after the grants are voted upon.
- Option (b) Finance Bill: This is governed by Article 117, which deals with the financial procedures and the distinction between Financial Bills and Money Bills (Article 110).
B.R. Ambedkar’s Political Philosophy focused on:
A)
Nationalism rooted in Vedic traditions
B)
Annihilation of caste and the assertion of Dalit rights
C)
Gandhian non-violence as a means of social change
D)
Marxist economic redistribution
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's political philosophy was primarily centered on the struggle against the oppressive caste system and the fight for the rights of the marginalized, specifically the Dalits (formerly referred to as untouchables). His seminal work, 'Annihilation of Caste', explicitly argues that the caste system is not merely a division of labor but a division of laborers, and that social democracy is a prerequisite for political democracy.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because Ambedkar critiqued Vedic traditions that justified the varna system and caste hierarchy.
- Option (c) is incorrect because Ambedkar had significant ideological disagreements with Mahatma Gandhi regarding the method of removing untouchability and the nature of the caste system.
- Option (d) is incorrect because while Ambedkar was influenced by some aspects of Western political thought and social justice, his primary focus was on social reform and legal rights rather than a purely Marxist economic redistribution model.
Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments or orders?
A)
Article 137
B)
Article 138
C)
Article 139
D)
Article 140
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analysis of Article 137: The Constitution of India under Article 137 explicitly states that 'Subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament... the Supreme Court shall have power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it'. This is known as the 'Review Jurisdiction' of the Supreme Court, allowing it to correct any apparent error or miscarriage of justice in its own previous decisions.
2. Analysis of Option b (Article 138): This article deals with the enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court by Parliament.
3. Analysis of Option c (Article 139): This article relates to the transfer of certain cases from High Courts to the Supreme Court if a case involves a substantial question of law of general importance.
4. Analysis of Option d (Article 140): This article provides for ancillary powers of the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders, or rules to ensure the complete administration of justice.
Therefore, Article 137 is the only correct provision that empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments.
Who described the Indian federal system as ‘quasi-federal’?
A)
Granville Austin
B)
K.C. Wheare
C)
Ivor Jennings
D)
A.V. Dicey
The term 'quasi-federal' was coined by Professor K.C. Wheare to describe the Indian federal system. He argued that the Indian Constitution is not a true federation because it possesses a strong centralizing tendency, combining features of both a federal government (division of powers) and a unitary government (strong center).
Analysis of other options:
- Granville Austin: Described Indian federalism as 'cooperative federalism'.
- Ivor Jennings: Viewed the Indian Constitution as overly detailed and criticized its complexity, but is not the source of the 'quasi-federal' label.
- A.V. Dicey: A British jurist known for his work on the 'Rule of Law', not for the specific classification of the Indian federal system as quasi-federal.