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Past Questions — 2025
Silver Revolution relates to-
A)
Petroleum
B)
Egg/ Poultry
C)
Fertilizer
D)
Cotton
The Silver Revolution refers to the period of dramatic increase in egg and poultry production in India. This was achieved through the introduction of hybrid breeds of poultry, the application of scientific methods in farming, and improved veterinary care. It took place primarily between 1969 and 1978.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) Petroleum: Not associated with any 'color' revolution in the agricultural sense; petroleum is a mineral resource.
- Option (c) Fertilizer: While fertilizers are used in various revolutions (like the Green Revolution), they are not the focus of the Silver Revolution.
- Option (d) Cotton: Cotton production is associated with the 'White Revolution' in some contexts (though White Revolution is primarily for Milk), but specifically, the Silver Revolution is dedicated to eggs/poultry.
What sort of matters is raised during ‘zero hour’ in the Parliament?
A)
Matters of no importance
B)
Matters of utmost importance
C)
Financial matters
D)
Constitutional matters
Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament is an informal device/procedure that starts immediately after the Question Hour and lasts until the regular agenda for the day is taken up. During this time, Members of Parliament (MPs) are allowed to raise matters of 'urgent public importance' without prior notice.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the purpose of Zero Hour is to address pressing issues, not unimportant ones.
- Option (c) is incorrect because financial matters are typically handled during the Budget session or through specific financial bills and motions.
- Option (d) is incorrect because while constitutional matters may be discussed, Zero Hour is specifically designed for urgent, current public issues rather than general constitutional debates.
The 1st Five Year Plan period was-
A)
1950-1955
B)
1951 - 1956
C)
1955 — 1960
D)
1956-1961
The First Five-Year Plan of India was launched by the Government of India in 1951 and spanned the period from 1951 to 1956.
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Launch Date**: The plan was presented by the first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, and officially launched in 1951.
2. **Duration**: As a 'Five-Year' plan, it covered a five-year window, concluding in 1956.
3. **Focus**: The primary objective of this plan was the development of the primary sector, with a heavy emphasis on agriculture, irrigation, and power projects to stabilize the economy after independence and partition.
4. **Model**: It was based on the Harrod-Domar model.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 1950-1955 is incorrect as the plan started in 1951.
- Option (b) 1951-1956 is correct.
- Option (c) 1955-1960 is incorrect; this overlaps with the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961).
- Option (d) 1956-1961 is incorrect; this was the period of the Second Five-Year Plan.
The Goods and Service Tax (GST) has been implemented from -
A)
July 1, 2018
B)
October 1, 2018
C)
July 1, 2017
D)
October 1, 2017
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based indirect tax that was implemented in India to replace multiple central and state taxes (such as VAT, Service Tax, and Central Excise Duty) to create a unified common market. It officially came into effect on July 1, 2017.
- Option (a) July 1, 2018: Incorrect; GST was already operational for a year.
- Option (b) October 1, 2018: Incorrect.
- Option (c) July 1, 2017: Correct; this is the official date of implementation.
- Option (d) October 1, 2017: Incorrect.
Which of the following is not a credit control objective of RBI?
A)
To achieve stability in the Country’s currency rate and money market.
B)
Controlling the business cycle and meeting the needs of the company.
C)
To achieve price stability.
D)
To meet financial obligations during a down turn in the economy as well as in regular times.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses credit control (monetary policy) to manage the macroeconomy.
1. Option (a) is a core objective: RBI manages the money supply and interest rates to ensure stability in the currency exchange rate and the money market.
2. Option (b) is a core objective: By adjusting credit flow, the RBI attempts to smooth out the business cycle (reducing the severity of booms and recessions) to ensure sustainable economic growth.
3. Option (c) is a core objective: Price stability (controlling inflation) is the primary mandate of the RBI's monetary policy framework.
4. Option (d) is INCORRECT because 'meeting financial obligations' refers to the liquidity management of an individual firm or a specific entity (micro-level financial management), not the objective of a central bank's credit control policy. The RBI controls the overall supply of credit in the economy; it does not exist to ensure that specific companies or individuals can meet their private financial obligations.
Which one of the following rights has been described by Dr. Ambedkar as “The heart and soul of the Constitution’?
A)
Right of Equality
B)
Right to freedom
C)
Right to property
D)
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the chief architect of the Indian Constitution, described the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) as the 'heart and soul of the Constitution'. This is because a right without a remedy is meaningless; Article 32 empowers citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through writs (such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, etc.), making the Fundamental Rights justifiable and enforceable.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Right of Equality: While fundamental, it is a category of rights, not the mechanism that protects all rights.
- b. Right to Freedom: This is a crucial set of liberties, but it lacks the 'remedial' power that Ambedkar highlighted.
- c. Right to Property: This was originally a fundamental right but was removed by the 44th Amendment Act (1978) and converted into a legal right under Article 300A.
Which of the following are included in the first phase of land reforms in India?
A)
Abolition of intermediaries
B)
Ceiling on size of holdings
C)
Green Revolution
D)
Both (a) & (b)
Land reforms in India were implemented in several phases to remove the colonial land tenure system and ensure equitable distribution of land.
1. **Abolition of Intermediaries (Zamindari Abolition):** This was the primary focus of the first phase of land reforms immediately after independence. The goal was to remove the middlemen (Zamindars, Jagirdars) between the actual tiller of the soil and the state, giving ownership rights to the cultivators.
2. **Tenancy Reforms and Ceiling on Land Holdings:** Along with the abolition of intermediaries, the government introduced 'Land Ceiling' laws. This involved fixing the maximum size of land a family could hold; any land exceeding this limit (surplus land) was acquired by the state and redistributed to landless laborers or small farmers.
3. **Green Revolution:** This was not a 'land reform' in terms of ownership or tenure; rather, it was a technological and agricultural intervention (using HYV seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation) that began in the mid-1960s to increase food grain production.
Since both the abolition of intermediaries and the imposition of land ceilings were core components of the initial land reform initiatives, option (d) is the correct choice.
What is the central concept of M.N. Roy’s Radical Humanism?
A)
Non-cooperation with colonial regimes
B)
Spiritual nationalism
C)
Class struggle as the basis for revolution
D)
Emphasis on individual freedom beyond political ideologies
M.N. Roy's philosophy of Radical Humanism (also known as New Humanism) evolved after his disillusionment with both nationalism and Marxism. The central tenet of this philosophy is the primacy of the individual. It posits that individual freedom, reason, and scientific rationality are the ultimate goals of society, moving beyond the constraints of class-based struggle (Marxism) or national identity (Nationalism).
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) refers to Gandhian strategies of resistance, not Roy's Radical Humanism.
- Option (b) is contrary to Roy's philosophy, as he emphasized scientific rationality and secularism over spiritualism.
- Option (c) describes Marxism/Communism. While Roy was once a prominent communist leader, Radical Humanism was his departure from the idea that class struggle is the sole driver of history.
- Option (d) correctly identifies the core of Radical Humanism: the liberation of the individual from all forms of collective domination, whether political, social, or ideological.
Which of the following monetary measures has the highest liquidity?
A)
Land
B)
Currency
C)
Debenture
D)
Gold
Liquidity refers to the ease and speed with which an asset can be converted into a medium of exchange (cash) without affecting its market price.
1. **Currency (Option b):** This is the most liquid asset because it is already the primary medium of exchange. It can be spent immediately to purchase goods and services without needing to be converted into anything else. Therefore, it has the highest liquidity.
2. **Gold (Option d):** While gold is highly liquid compared to real estate, it must be sold or exchanged for currency before it can be used for most transactions, which takes time and may involve transaction costs.
3. **Debentures (Option c):** These are debt instruments. To get cash from a debenture, one must either wait for the maturity date or sell it in a secondary market, which depends on market demand and takes more time than spending cash.
4. **Land (Option a):** Real estate is considered an illiquid asset. Selling land involves a lengthy process of finding a buyer, legal verification, and registration, often taking weeks or months to convert into cash.
The 92nd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution added which of the following languages to the Eighth Schedule?
A)
Urdu
B)
Bodo
C)
Hindi
D)
Sanskrit
The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added four languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) Urdu: Was already part of the Eighth Schedule since the original constitution/early amendments.
- Option (b) Bodo: Correct. It was added via the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
- Option (c) Hindi: One of the primary official languages and part of the original Eighth Schedule.
- Option (d) Sanskrit: Part of the original Eighth Schedule.
Therefore, among the given options, Bodo is the only language added by the 92nd Amendment.
Vice President of India presides over the Sessions.
A)
Parliament
B)
Lok Sabha
C)
Rajya Sabha
D)
Cabinet
Under the Constitution of India, the Vice President holds a dual role. First, they are the second-highest constitutional authority in the country. Second, they serve as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament). In this capacity, the Vice President presides over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha, maintains order, and ensures that the rules of procedure are followed.
Why other options are incorrect:
- (a) Parliament: The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha. While the VP presides over one house, they do not preside over the entire Parliament (joint sessions are presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha).
- (b) Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha is presided over by the Speaker, who is elected by the members of the house.
- (d) Cabinet: The Cabinet is presided over by the Prime Minister of India.
The Parliament of India can make use of the residuary powers
A)
On the request of a state
B)
During national emergency as well as constitutional emergency as well in a state
C)
Only during national emergency
D)
At all times
Under the Indian Constitution, the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States is detailed in the Seventh Schedule. This schedule contains three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. 'Residuary powers' refer to the authority to make laws on any matter that is not mentioned in any of these three lists. According to Article 248 of the Constitution of India, the power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List is vested exclusively in the Parliament. Unlike the power to legislate on 'State List' subjects (which usually requires a special condition like a National Emergency or a request from states), the power over residuary subjects is an inherent, permanent power of the Parliament. Therefore, the Parliament can exercise residuary powers at all times, regardless of whether there is an emergency or a specific request from a state.
Which one of the following statement is not correct?
A)
The reverse REPO rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows.
B)
The REPO and reverse REPO are instruments used by the RBI to regulate liquidity in the Market.
C)
A REPO is a sale and repurchase of the same securities between two parties.
D)
A REPO rate is the rate at which the commercial banks borrow from the Central Bank.
To identify the incorrect statement, let's analyze each option based on monetary policy definitions:
1. **Option (d) is correct**: The REPO (Repurchase Option) rate is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks against government securities.
2. **Option (c) is correct**: A REPO is technically a transaction where one party sells securities to another with an agreement to repurchase them at a future date at a specified price.
3. **Option (b) is correct**: Both REPO and Reverse REPO are primary tools of the RBI's monetary policy used to manage the amount of money (liquidity) circulating in the banking system.
4. **Option (a) is incorrect**: The Reverse REPO rate is NOT the rate at which the RBI borrows. Instead, it is the rate at which the RBI **lends** money to commercial banks (or more accurately, the rate at which the RBI accepts deposits from commercial banks to absorb excess liquidity from the market). The RBI does not 'borrow' in the traditional commercial sense; it manages liquidity by offering a rate to banks to park their funds.
Therefore, statement (a) is the incorrect one.
Which institution is not a Local Self Government?
A)
Panchayati Raj
B)
Municipal Council
C)
Municipal Corporation
D)
Zonaji Council
Local Self-Government (LSG) refers to the management of local affairs by elected representatives of the local people. In India, this is divided into two main categories: Rural Local Government and Urban Local Government.
1. Panchayati Raj (Option a): This is the system of rural local self-government in India, constitutionalized by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992. It operates at the village, block, and district levels.
2. Municipal Council (Option b): These are urban local bodies established for smaller cities or towns, constitutionalized by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
3. Municipal Corporation (Option c): These are urban local bodies established for large metropolitan cities, also part of the 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
4. Zonaji Council (Option d): There is no recognized constitutional or statutory body known as a 'Zonaji Council' within the framework of Indian Local Self-Government. It is a fictitious or incorrect term in the context of Indian Polity, making it the correct answer to the question 'Which institution is NOT a Local Self Government?'
How many members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India?
A)
284
B)
294
C)
274
D)
244
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. While the initial membership was higher, on January 24, 1950, the final session was held where the members signed the document. A total of 284 members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India. This number represents those who were present and participated in the final signing ceremony before the Constitution officially came into force on January 26, 1950. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not match the historical record of the signatories.
Policy that deals with the taxation and expenditure decisions of the Government is-
A)
Monetary Policy
B)
Labour market Policies
C)
Trade Policy
D)
Fiscal Policy
The question asks for the policy that governs government taxation and expenditure.
1. **Fiscal Policy (Correct):** This is the means by which a government adjusts its spending levels and tax rates to monitor and influence a nation's economy. It involves two main tools: Government Expenditure (spending on infrastructure, healthcare, etc.) and Taxation (direct and indirect taxes).
2. **Monetary Policy (Incorrect):** This is managed by the Central Bank (e.g., RBI in India). It deals with the money supply, interest rates, and banking regulations to control inflation and stabilize the currency.
3. **Labour Market Policies (Incorrect):** These are policies designed to affect the supply and demand of labor, such as minimum wage laws, vocational training, and unemployment benefits.
4. **Trade Policy (Incorrect):** This refers to the regulations and agreements that constrain international trade, such as tariffs, quotas, and trade treaties.
All Members of Parliament alone elect the
A)
Vice President
B)
President
C)
Prime Minister
D)
Chief Justice
The question asks who is elected by 'All Members of Parliament alone'.
1. **Vice President (Option a):** According to Article 66 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). This includes both elected and nominated members. No state legislative assemblies are involved. Therefore, the Vice President is elected by Members of Parliament alone.
2. **President (Option b):** The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament AND the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (and UTs of Delhi and Puducherry). Since state MLAs are involved, it is not 'Members of Parliament alone'.
3. **Prime Minister (Option c):** The Prime Minister is not directly elected by the Parliament. The President appoints the leader of the party or coalition that commands a majority in the Lok Sabha.
4. **Chief Justice (Option d):** The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India based on the collegium system; they are not elected by the Parliament.
Thus, the Vice President is the only official among the options elected exclusively by the members of the two houses of Parliament.
The primary sector within a country for the calculation of National Income includes -
A)
Small scale industries
B)
Retail trading
C)
Agriculture
D)
All of these
In economics, the economy is divided into three main sectors for the calculation of National Income:
1. **Primary Sector:** This sector involves the extraction and production of raw materials directly from nature. It includes activities such as Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing, and Mining. Since agriculture is the primary source of raw materials, it falls under this category.
2. **Secondary Sector:** This sector involves the processing of raw materials into finished goods (manufacturing). 'Small scale industries' (Option a) fall under the secondary sector because they involve manufacturing processes.
3. **Tertiary Sector:** This sector provides services to consumers and other businesses. 'Retail trading' (Option b) is a service-based activity and therefore falls under the tertiary sector.
Therefore, among the given options, only Agriculture belongs to the primary sector.
The Election Commission of India does not hold election for
A)
The Parliament
B)
State Legislative Assemblies
C)
Municipalities and the Panchayati Raj Institutions
D)
President and Vice-President
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a permanent constitutional body responsible for administering elections to the most important offices in the country.
1. **Parliament (Option a):** The ECI conducts elections for both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. **State Legislative Assemblies (Option b):** The ECI conducts elections for the Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad of the states.
3. **President and Vice-President (Option d):** The ECI is responsible for conducting the elections for the offices of the President and Vice-President of India.
4. **Municipalities and Panchayati Raj Institutions (Option c):** Elections to local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) are NOT conducted by the Election Commission of India. Instead, they are conducted by the **State Election Commission (SEC)** of the respective state, as mandated by Articles 243K and 243ZA of the Indian Constitution. This ensures the autonomy of local self-government.
Gandhi led three major pan-Indian movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and ________ against British Rule.
A)
Jai Hind
B)
Anti-British
C)
Anti-India
D)
Quit India
Mahatma Gandhi led three primary mass movements that galvanized the Indian population against British colonial rule:
1. The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922): Aimed at resisting British rule through non-violent means and boycotting British goods and institutions.
2. The Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-1934): Initiated with the Dandi March to protest the salt tax and break colonial laws.
3. The Quit India Movement (1942): A decisive movement demanding an immediate end to British rule in India, characterized by the slogan 'Do or Die'.
Analysis of other options:
- 'Jai Hind' is a patriotic salutation, not a movement.
- 'Anti-British' is a general description of the sentiment, not the specific name of a movement.
- 'Anti-India' is factually incorrect as the movements were for Indian independence, not against India.
Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments or orders?
A)
Article 137
B)
Article 138
C)
Article 139
D)
Article 140
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analysis of Article 137: The Constitution of India under Article 137 explicitly states that 'Subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament... the Supreme Court shall have power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it'. This is known as the 'Review Jurisdiction' of the Supreme Court, allowing it to correct any apparent error or miscarriage of justice in its own previous decisions.
2. Analysis of Option b (Article 138): This article deals with the enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court by Parliament.
3. Analysis of Option c (Article 139): This article relates to the transfer of certain cases from High Courts to the Supreme Court if a case involves a substantial question of law of general importance.
4. Analysis of Option d (Article 140): This article provides for ancillary powers of the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders, or rules to ensure the complete administration of justice.
Therefore, Article 137 is the only correct provision that empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments.
Which one of the following rivers drains into Arabian Sea?
A)
Yamuna
B)
Mahanadi
C)
Krishna
D)
Narmada
To determine which river drains into the Arabian Sea, we analyze the drainage patterns of the given options:
1. **Narmada (Option d):** The Narmada is one of the major west-flowing rivers of Peninsular India. It originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh and flows westward through a rift valley before draining into the Arabian Sea via the Gulf of Khambhat. This makes it the correct answer.
2. **Yamuna (Option a):** The Yamuna is a major tributary of the Ganga. It flows eastward and joins the Ganga at Prayagraj; the combined system eventually drains into the Bay of Bengal.
3. **Mahanadi (Option b):** The Mahanadi is an east-flowing river that originates in Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha to drain into the Bay of Bengal.
4. **Krishna (Option c):** The Krishna is another major east-flowing river of the Peninsular plateau that drains into the Bay of Bengal.
Therefore, among the given options, only the Narmada drains into the Arabian Sea.
Article 113 of the Constitution is related to-
A)
Appropriation Bill
B)
Finance Bill
C)
Demand for Grants
D)
None of these
Article 113 of the Constitution of India deals with the 'Procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates'. Under this article, the estimates of expenditure are presented to the Parliament, and the process of voting on these estimates is essentially the process of approving the 'Demands for Grants'. Specifically, it distinguishes between expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India (which is not submitted to vote) and expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India (which is submitted to the vote of Parliament in the form of demands for grants).
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Appropriation Bill: This is governed by Article 114, which provides the legal authority to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India after the grants are voted upon.
- Option (b) Finance Bill: This is governed by Article 117, which deals with the financial procedures and the distinction between Financial Bills and Money Bills (Article 110).
Which Constitutional provision upholds secularism in India?
A)
Article 14
B)
Article 15
C)
Article 25
D)
Article 30
Secularism in the Indian Constitution is not defined by a single article but is upheld through a cluster of Fundamental Rights (Articles 25–28).
1. **Article 25** is the primary provision that upholds secularism as it guarantees the 'freedom of conscience' and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion to all persons. This ensures that the state does not impose a state religion and allows individuals the autonomy of faith.
Why other options are incorrect:
- **Article 14** deals with the 'Equality before Law' and 'Equal Protection of Laws'. While it supports the general principle of equality, it is not specifically a provision for religious secularism.
- **Article 15** prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. While it prevents religious discrimination, Article 25 is the foundational pillar for the positive right to religious freedom.
- **Article 30** provides the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. This is a specific protection for minority rights rather than the general constitutional provision upholding the secular nature of the state's relationship with religion.
B.R. Ambedkar’s Political Philosophy focused on:
A)
Nationalism rooted in Vedic traditions
B)
Annihilation of caste and the assertion of Dalit rights
C)
Gandhian non-violence as a means of social change
D)
Marxist economic redistribution
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's political philosophy was primarily centered on the struggle against the oppressive caste system and the fight for the rights of the marginalized, specifically the Dalits (formerly referred to as untouchables). His seminal work, 'Annihilation of Caste', explicitly argues that the caste system is not merely a division of labor but a division of laborers, and that social democracy is a prerequisite for political democracy.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because Ambedkar critiqued Vedic traditions that justified the varna system and caste hierarchy.
- Option (c) is incorrect because Ambedkar had significant ideological disagreements with Mahatma Gandhi regarding the method of removing untouchability and the nature of the caste system.
- Option (d) is incorrect because while Ambedkar was influenced by some aspects of Western political thought and social justice, his primary focus was on social reform and legal rights rather than a purely Marxist economic redistribution model.