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Past Questions — 2025
Green Revolution in India mainly related to-
A)
Oilseed
B)
Fish
C)
Foodgrains
D)
Non-Conventional Energy Sources
The Green Revolution in India, which began in the mid-1960s, was a transformative period in agriculture aimed at increasing food security. It primarily focused on increasing the production of foodgrains, specifically wheat and rice, through the introduction of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, expanded irrigation systems, and the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Oilseed: While there were later attempts to expand these techniques to oilseeds (often referred to as the 'Yellow Revolution'), the primary focus of the Green Revolution was foodgrains.
- Option (b) Fish: The increase in fish production is associated with the 'Blue Revolution'.
- Option (d) Non-Conventional Energy Sources: This relates to energy policy and sustainable power (like solar or wind), not the agricultural productivity movement known as the Green Revolution.
Which Constitutional provision upholds secularism in India?
A)
Article 14
B)
Article 15
C)
Article 25
D)
Article 30
Secularism in the Indian Constitution is not defined by a single article but is upheld through a cluster of Fundamental Rights (Articles 25–28).
1. **Article 25** is the primary provision that upholds secularism as it guarantees the 'freedom of conscience' and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion to all persons. This ensures that the state does not impose a state religion and allows individuals the autonomy of faith.
Why other options are incorrect:
- **Article 14** deals with the 'Equality before Law' and 'Equal Protection of Laws'. While it supports the general principle of equality, it is not specifically a provision for religious secularism.
- **Article 15** prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. While it prevents religious discrimination, Article 25 is the foundational pillar for the positive right to religious freedom.
- **Article 30** provides the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. This is a specific protection for minority rights rather than the general constitutional provision upholding the secular nature of the state's relationship with religion.
Which one of the following rivers drains into Arabian Sea?
A)
Yamuna
B)
Mahanadi
C)
Krishna
D)
Narmada
To determine which river drains into the Arabian Sea, we analyze the drainage patterns of the given options:
1. **Narmada (Option d):** The Narmada is one of the major west-flowing rivers of Peninsular India. It originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh and flows westward through a rift valley before draining into the Arabian Sea via the Gulf of Khambhat. This makes it the correct answer.
2. **Yamuna (Option a):** The Yamuna is a major tributary of the Ganga. It flows eastward and joins the Ganga at Prayagraj; the combined system eventually drains into the Bay of Bengal.
3. **Mahanadi (Option b):** The Mahanadi is an east-flowing river that originates in Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha to drain into the Bay of Bengal.
4. **Krishna (Option c):** The Krishna is another major east-flowing river of the Peninsular plateau that drains into the Bay of Bengal.
Therefore, among the given options, only the Narmada drains into the Arabian Sea.
Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments or orders?
A)
Article 137
B)
Article 138
C)
Article 139
D)
Article 140
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analysis of Article 137: The Constitution of India under Article 137 explicitly states that 'Subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament... the Supreme Court shall have power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it'. This is known as the 'Review Jurisdiction' of the Supreme Court, allowing it to correct any apparent error or miscarriage of justice in its own previous decisions.
2. Analysis of Option b (Article 138): This article deals with the enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court by Parliament.
3. Analysis of Option c (Article 139): This article relates to the transfer of certain cases from High Courts to the Supreme Court if a case involves a substantial question of law of general importance.
4. Analysis of Option d (Article 140): This article provides for ancillary powers of the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders, or rules to ensure the complete administration of justice.
Therefore, Article 137 is the only correct provision that empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments.
Article 113 of the Constitution is related to-
A)
Appropriation Bill
B)
Finance Bill
C)
Demand for Grants
D)
None of these
Article 113 of the Constitution of India deals with the 'Procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates'. Under this article, the estimates of expenditure are presented to the Parliament, and the process of voting on these estimates is essentially the process of approving the 'Demands for Grants'. Specifically, it distinguishes between expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India (which is not submitted to vote) and expenditure made from the Consolidated Fund of India (which is submitted to the vote of Parliament in the form of demands for grants).
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Appropriation Bill: This is governed by Article 114, which provides the legal authority to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India after the grants are voted upon.
- Option (b) Finance Bill: This is governed by Article 117, which deals with the financial procedures and the distinction between Financial Bills and Money Bills (Article 110).
The difference between Gross National Product and Depreciation is equal to-
A)
Net National Product
B)
Net Domestic at market price
C)
Net National Product at factor cost
D)
Net Value Added
In national income accounting, the fundamental relationship between 'Gross' and 'Net' concepts is the subtraction of depreciation (also known as Consumption of Fixed Capital).
1. **The Formula**: Net National Product (NNP) = Gross National Product (GNP) - Depreciation.
2. **Reasoning**: GNP measures the total value of all final goods and services produced by the residents of a country. However, during production, capital assets (like machinery and buildings) wear out over time. This wear and tear is called Depreciation. To find the 'Net' value (the actual addition to the wealth of the nation), we must subtract this depreciation from the 'Gross' value.
**Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option b (Net Domestic at market price)**: This refers to NDP (Net Domestic Product), which is derived from GDP (Gross Domestic Product), not GNP.
- **Option c (Net National Product at factor cost)**: This is specifically 'National Income'. To get this, you must subtract both Depreciation AND Indirect Taxes (while adding subsidies) from GNP. The question only mentions subtracting depreciation.
- **Option d (Net Value Added)**: This is a component used to calculate the total product of a specific industry or sector, not the aggregate national product.
B.R. Ambedkar’s Political Philosophy focused on:
A)
Nationalism rooted in Vedic traditions
B)
Annihilation of caste and the assertion of Dalit rights
C)
Gandhian non-violence as a means of social change
D)
Marxist economic redistribution
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's political philosophy was primarily centered on the struggle against the oppressive caste system and the fight for the rights of the marginalized, specifically the Dalits (formerly referred to as untouchables). His seminal work, 'Annihilation of Caste', explicitly argues that the caste system is not merely a division of labor but a division of laborers, and that social democracy is a prerequisite for political democracy.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because Ambedkar critiqued Vedic traditions that justified the varna system and caste hierarchy.
- Option (c) is incorrect because Ambedkar had significant ideological disagreements with Mahatma Gandhi regarding the method of removing untouchability and the nature of the caste system.
- Option (d) is incorrect because while Ambedkar was influenced by some aspects of Western political thought and social justice, his primary focus was on social reform and legal rights rather than a purely Marxist economic redistribution model.
Balance of Payments is an accounting statement that records monetary transactions between -
A)
Residents of a nation and the rest of the world
B)
Non-residents and the rest of the world
C)
Residents of a nation and non-residents
D)
None of the above
The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world over a specific period (usually a year).
1. Why Option (a) is correct: The definition of BoP specifically tracks the flow of goods, services, and capital between 'residents' (which includes individuals, businesses, and government agencies within a country) and the 'rest of the world' (all other foreign nations).
2. Why Option (b) is incorrect: Transactions between non-residents of a country do not affect that country's BoP; they are recorded in the BoP of the respective countries involved.
3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: While 'non-residents' are part of the 'rest of the world', the standard economic definition uses the phrase 'rest of the world' to encompass all foreign entities, including foreign governments and international organizations, making (a) the more comprehensive and standard academic definition.
BoP consists of two main accounts: the Current Account (trade in goods and services, income, and transfers) and the Capital Account (foreign direct investment, portfolio investment, and loans).
In India, 100% FDI is permitted in which of the following sector?
A)
Telecom sector
B)
Insurance
C)
Banking
D)
Power exchange
To determine the correct answer, we must analyze the current Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limits for each sector mentioned:
1. **Power Exchange (Option d):** 100% FDI is permitted under the automatic route in the power sector, including power exchanges. This is part of India's strategy to attract investment in energy infrastructure.
2. **Telecom sector (Option a):** While the telecom sector now allows 100% FDI under the automatic route (following recent policy changes), in the context of traditional competitive exam questions and sectoral comparisons, Power Exchange is a definitive '100% automatic' sector. However, if this is a recent 2025 exam, Telecom is also 100%. But typically, in these specific MCQ sets, Power Exchange is the textbook answer for unrestricted FDI.
3. **Insurance (Option b):** FDI in insurance was increased from 49% to 74% (under the Insurance (Amendment) Act, 2021). It is not 100%.
4. **Banking (Option c):** FDI in private sector banks is capped at 74%. It is not 100%.
Comparing the options, Power Exchange is the most accurate answer as it has consistently allowed 100% FDI under the automatic route without the complex regulatory caps seen in Banking and Insurance.
The Lucknow session of the Congress is known for-
A)
Split in the Congress
B)
Adopting Swadeshi
C)
Reunification of Indian National Congress
D)
Condemning the Muslim League
The Lucknow Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) took place in 1916 and is historically significant for two primary reasons:
1. The Reunification of the Congress: The split that occurred during the Surat Session of 1907 between the 'Moderates' and the 'Extremists' was resolved, and both factions reunited under the leadership of figures like Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
2. The Lucknow Pact: The INC entered into an agreement with the All India Muslim League to present a joint set of demands to the British government, marking a period of Hindu-Muslim unity.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): The split in the Congress occurred at the Surat Session in 1907, not Lucknow.
- Option (b): Swadeshi was adopted primarily during the Banaras Session of 1905 in response to the Partition of Bengal.
- Option (d): The Lucknow session was characterized by cooperation with the Muslim League (the Lucknow Pact), not condemnation.
What is the name of the scheme recently approved by the Union Cabinet to promote natural farming in India?
A)
National Agricultural Development Scheme
B)
National Mission on Natural Farming
C)
Green Revolution 2.0
D)
Sustainable Agriculture Promotion Scheme
The Union Cabinet approved the 'National Mission on Natural Farming' (NMNF) to promote chemical-free agriculture and sustainable farming practices across India. The mission aims to reduce the reliance on chemical fertilizers and pesticides, improve soil health, and increase farmer income by promoting natural inputs.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) 'National Agricultural Development Scheme' is a generic term and not the specific name of the recently approved natural farming mission.
- Option (c) 'Green Revolution 2.0' is a conceptual term often used in policy discussions to describe the shift toward sustainability, but it is not the formal name of this specific scheme.
- Option (d) 'Sustainable Agriculture Promotion Scheme' is a descriptive phrase but not the official title of the Cabinet-approved mission.
Which Country amended its double taxation avoidance agreement with India on March 7, 2024?
A)
Maldives
B)
Mauritius
C)
Bangladesh
D)
Singapore
On March 7, 2024, India and the Maldives signed an amendment to their Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA). The primary objective of this amendment was to eliminate double taxation and prevent fiscal evasion with respect to taxes on income. This move was intended to promote greater economic cooperation, encourage investments, and facilitate the flow of capital between the two nations by clarifying tax liabilities and providing relief to taxpayers operating in both jurisdictions. While India has significant DTAAs with Mauritius, Singapore, and Bangladesh, the specific amendment signed on March 7, 2024, pertains to the Maldives.
What was the national song during the anti-partition movement in Bengal?
A)
Vande Mataram
B)
Sare Jahan Se
C)
Milke Chalo
D)
Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna
The anti-partition movement in Bengal (Swadeshi Movement) occurred after the Partition of Bengal in 1905 by Lord Curzon. During this period, the song 'Vande Mataram', written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in his novel 'Anandamath', became the rallying cry and the unofficial national song of the movement. It served as a powerful symbol of nationalism and unity against British colonial rule.
Analysis of other options:
- 'Sare Jahan Se' (Sare Jahan Se Achha) was written by Muhammad Iqbal in 1904 but did not serve as the primary anthem of the anti-partition movement.
- 'Milke Chalo' is not a recognized national song of that specific historical movement.
- 'Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna' was a popular revolutionary poem/song associated with the Hindustan Republican Association and figures like Ram Prasad Bismil and Bhagat Singh, appearing later in the freedom struggle.
Which space agency launched the Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services (LCNS) programme?
A)
SpaceX
B)
National Aeronautics and Space Administration
C)
European Space Agency
D)
China National Space Administration
The Moonlight programme is an initiative by the European Space Agency (ESA) designed to establish a lunar communications and navigation system. Much like GPS works on Earth, the Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services (LCNS) will provide satellite-based connectivity and positioning services for lunar landers, rovers, and astronauts on the Moon's surface. This infrastructure is critical for supporting sustainable human presence and robotic exploration of the Moon.
Why other options are incorrect:
- SpaceX (a) is a private aerospace company, not a government space agency, and while it provides launch services for many agencies, it did not launch the Moonlight programme.
- NASA (b) has its own lunar initiatives (such as the Artemis program) and while it collaborates with ESA, Moonlight is specifically an ESA-led initiative.
- China National Space Administration (d) has its own lunar exploration program (Chang'e), which is separate from the European Moonlight project.
Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Stafford Cripps and AV Alexander were part of-
A)
August Offer
B)
Wavell Plan
C)
Cabinet Mission
D)
Crips Mission
The Cabinet Mission was sent to India in 1946 by the British Prime Minister Clement Attlee to discuss the transfer of power from the British government to Indian leadership. The mission consisted of three high-ranking members of the British Cabinet: Lord Pethick-Lawrence (Secretary of State for India), Sir Stafford Cripps (President of the Board of Trade), and A.V. Alexander (First Lord of the Admiralty).
Why other options are incorrect:
- August Offer (1940): This was a proposal made by Viceroy Lord Linlithgow to gain Indian support during WWII; it was not a mission composed of these three individuals.
- Wavell Plan (1945): This was a proposal by Viceroy Lord Wavell to resolve the political deadlock in India, leading to the Simla Conference.
- Cripps Mission (1942): While Stafford Cripps was the lead member of this mission, it was a single-member mission (supported by officials) rather than a three-member Cabinet delegation including Pethick-Lawrence and A.V. Alexander.
Who among the following was not one of the leaders of the 1857 Rebellion?
A)
Kunwar Singh
B)
Tantia Tope
C)
Bahadur Shah Zafar
D)
Bhagat Singh
The 1857 Rebellion (also known as the First War of Independence) took place in the mid-19th century.
1. Kunwar Singh (Option a) was a prominent leader of the rebellion in Bihar.
2. Tantia Tope (Option b) was a key general and strategist for Nana Sahib in Kanpur.
3. Bahadur Shah Zafar (Option c) was the last Mughal Emperor and was declared the symbolic leader/emperor of the rebellion by the sepoys.
4. Bhagat Singh (Option d) was a revolutionary nationalist who fought against British rule in the 1920s and 1930s. He was born in 1907, long after the 1857 Rebellion had ended. Therefore, he could not have been a leader of the 1857 Rebellion.
The platform introduced by the Ministry of Electronics and IT which provides access to important documents anywhere is called
A)
PM Gatishakti
B)
Virtual ID
C)
Academic Bank of Credit
D)
Digilocker
DigiLocker is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) under the Digital India programme. It provides a cloud-based platform for issuance and verification of documents and certificates in a digital format, allowing citizens to access authentic documents (like Driving Licenses, Marksheets, and Aadhaar) electronically from anywhere, eliminating the need to carry physical copies.
Why other options are incorrect:
- PM Gatishakti: This is a National Master Plan for multi-modal connectivity to coordinate infrastructure projects across different ministries.
- Virtual ID: This is a temporary, revocable 16-digit random number mapped to an Aadhaar number to enhance privacy during authentication.
- Academic Bank of Credit (ABC): This is an initiative by the Ministry of Education to store academic credits earned by students from various recognized Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) to facilitate student mobility.
In which year the Council of Churches in Mizoram was formed?
A)
1986
B)
1998
C)
2001
D)
2024
The Council of Churches in Mizoram (CCM) was formally established in the year 2001. It serves as an ecumenical body aimed at fostering unity, cooperation, and mutual understanding among the various Christian denominations operating within the state of Mizoram. Options a (1986), b (1998), and d (2024) are incorrect as they do not align with the historical founding date of the organization.
The immediate cause which led to the launching of the Non-Cooperation movement was the?
A)
Rowlatt Act
B)
Khilafat Committee
C)
Simon Commission
D)
Dissatisfaction with the Government of India Act, 1912
The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922) was launched by Mahatma Gandhi to achieve Swaraj and to support the Khilafat movement. The 'immediate cause' was the fusion of the Indian national struggle with the Khilafat issue. The Khilafat Committee was formed to protest against the treatment of the Caliph (Khalifa) of Turkey after World War I. Gandhi saw this as a golden opportunity to unite Hindus and Muslims in a common struggle against British rule.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Rowlatt Act (1919): While the Rowlatt Act and the subsequent Jallianwala Bagh massacre created the atmosphere of resentment that made Non-Cooperation possible, they were precursors rather than the immediate trigger for the formal launch of the movement in 1920.
- c. Simon Commission (1927): This occurred much later than the Non-Cooperation Movement and led to the 'Simon Go Back' protests and eventually the Civil Disobedience Movement.
- d. Government of India Act, 1912: There was no such major act in 1912 that served as a catalyst; the relevant acts were the Morley-Minto (1909) and Montagu-Chelmsford (1919) reforms.
Which of the following was known as the Partition Plan of India?
A)
Cripps Mission Plan
B)
Cabinet Mission Plan
C)
Wavell Plan
D)
Mountbatten Plan
The Mountbatten Plan, announced on June 3, 1947, is formally known as the '3rd June Plan'. It was the final blueprint for the partition of British India into two independent dominions: India and Pakistan. Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India, proposed this plan to resolve the deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Cripps Mission Plan (1942): Proposed by Sir Stafford Cripps to secure Indian cooperation in WWII in exchange for dominion status after the war; it did not propose partition.
- b. Cabinet Mission Plan (1946): Aimed to keep India united through a three-tier federation structure and a constituent assembly; it specifically tried to avoid partition.
- c. Wavell Plan (1945): Proposed during the Simla Conference to form an Executive Council with equal representation for major communities to transition toward independence, but it did not outline a partition plan.
Which organization released the International Debt Report 2024?
A)
World Bank
B)
International Monetary Fund
C)
World Trade Organization
D)
Asian Development Bank
The International Debt Report (IDR) is an annual publication released by the World Bank. The 2024 report provides comprehensive data on the external debt of low- and middle-income countries, analyzing trends in debt stocks, debt service, and the sustainability of sovereign debt globally.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. International Monetary Fund (IMF): While the IMF monitors global financial stability and publishes reports like the 'World Economic Outlook' and 'Global Financial Stability Report', the specific 'International Debt Report' is a World Bank product.
- c. World Trade Organization (WTO): The WTO focuses on the rules of trade between nations and publishes reports related to trade statistics and policies, not sovereign debt reports.
- d. Asian Development Bank (ADB): The ADB focuses on regional development in Asia and the Pacific and publishes reports specific to that region, rather than a global International Debt Report.
The 16" of August 1946 that saw massive communal violence was called-
A)
Muslim Hindu Riot Day
B)
Hardiyal Day
C)
Direct Action Day
D)
Jeevansathi Day
The event that took place on August 16, 1946, is historically known as 'Direct Action Day'. It was called by the Muslim League, led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah, to demand a separate homeland (Pakistan) after the failure of the Cabinet Mission Plan. The day witnessed massive communal violence, starting in Calcutta (now Kolkata), which led to the 'Great Calcutta Killings'.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) 'Muslim Hindu Riot Day' is a descriptive phrase but not the official historical name of the event.
- Option (b) 'Hardiyal Day' and Option (d) 'Jeevansathi Day' are fabricated terms and have no historical significance related to the events of 1946.
Who applied the Doctrine of Lapse to the Indian states?
A)
Lord Hastings
B)
Lord Dalhousie
C)
George Canning
D)
Lord Wellesley
The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation policy applied by the British East India Company in India. It stated that any princely state under the paramountcy of the East India Company would be annexed if the ruler was 'natural' (died without a male heir), as adopted heirs were not recognized as legal successors to the throne.
1. Lord Dalhousie (Governor-General from 1848 to 1856) aggressively implemented this policy to expand British territory. Notable states annexed under this doctrine include Satara (1848), Sambalpur (1849), Jhansi (1853), and Nagpur (1854).
Why other options are incorrect:
- Lord Hastings: Known for the policy of 'paramountcy' and the Third Anglo-Maratha War, but not the Doctrine of Lapse.
- George Canning: He succeeded Dalhousie and actually abolished the Doctrine of Lapse after the Revolt of 1857 to appease the Indian princes.
- Lord Wellesley: Known for the 'Subsidiary Alliance' system, which was a different mechanism of control involving military protection in exchange for political submission.
Who is the current foreign Secretary of India?
A)
Vikram Misri
B)
Vinay Mohan Kwatra
C)
Harsh Vardhan Shringla
D)
Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. The Foreign Secretary is the highest-ranking career diplomat in the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) of India.
2. Vikram Misri was appointed as the Foreign Secretary of India in July 2024, succeeding Vinay Mohan Kwatra.
3. Analysis of other options:
- Option b (Vinay Mohan Kwatra): He served as the Foreign Secretary prior to Vikram Misri.
- Option c (Harsh Vardhan Shringla): He is a former Foreign Secretary (served from 2020 to 2022).
- Option d (Subrahmanyam Jaishankar): He is the current Minister of External Affairs (a political appointment/Cabinet Minister), not the Foreign Secretary (an administrative/civil service appointment).
With victory in the Battle of Buxar in 1764, the English East India Company gained the-
A)
Control of markets around Bengal
B)
Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa
C)
War indemnity of 4 Lakhs rupees
D)
Region of Awadh and Calcutta
The Battle of Buxar (1764) was a decisive victory for the English East India Company against the combined forces of Mir Qasim (Nawab of Bengal), Shuja-ud-Daula (Nawab of Awadh), and Shah Alam II (Mughal Emperor). Following the victory, the Treaty of Allahabad was signed in 1765. Under this treaty, the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II granted the 'Diwani Rights' (the right to collect land revenue and manage civil justice) of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the East India Company. This effectively gave the British financial control over the wealthiest provinces of India, transforming them from a trading company into a ruling power.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): While they gained market control, the 'Diwani rights' was the formal legal and political achievement of the battle.
- Option (c): The war indemnity paid by Shuja-ud-Daula was 50 Lakhs rupees, not 4 Lakhs.
- Option (d): The Company did not annex Awadh; instead, they restored it to Shuja-ud-Daula as a buffer state, and they already had a presence in Calcutta.