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Past Questions — 2025
The Parliament of India can make use of the residuary powers
A)
On the request of a state
B)
During national emergency as well as constitutional emergency as well in a state
C)
Only during national emergency
D)
At all times
Under the Indian Constitution, the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States is detailed in the Seventh Schedule. This schedule contains three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. 'Residuary powers' refer to the authority to make laws on any matter that is not mentioned in any of these three lists. According to Article 248 of the Constitution of India, the power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List is vested exclusively in the Parliament. Unlike the power to legislate on 'State List' subjects (which usually requires a special condition like a National Emergency or a request from states), the power over residuary subjects is an inherent, permanent power of the Parliament. Therefore, the Parliament can exercise residuary powers at all times, regardless of whether there is an emergency or a specific request from a state.
Vice President of India presides over the Sessions.
A)
Parliament
B)
Lok Sabha
C)
Rajya Sabha
D)
Cabinet
Under the Constitution of India, the Vice President holds a dual role. First, they are the second-highest constitutional authority in the country. Second, they serve as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament). In this capacity, the Vice President presides over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha, maintains order, and ensures that the rules of procedure are followed.
Why other options are incorrect:
- (a) Parliament: The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha. While the VP presides over one house, they do not preside over the entire Parliament (joint sessions are presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha).
- (b) Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha is presided over by the Speaker, who is elected by the members of the house.
- (d) Cabinet: The Cabinet is presided over by the Prime Minister of India.
What sort of matters is raised during ‘zero hour’ in the Parliament?
A)
Matters of no importance
B)
Matters of utmost importance
C)
Financial matters
D)
Constitutional matters
Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament is an informal device/procedure that starts immediately after the Question Hour and lasts until the regular agenda for the day is taken up. During this time, Members of Parliament (MPs) are allowed to raise matters of 'urgent public importance' without prior notice.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the purpose of Zero Hour is to address pressing issues, not unimportant ones.
- Option (c) is incorrect because financial matters are typically handled during the Budget session or through specific financial bills and motions.
- Option (d) is incorrect because while constitutional matters may be discussed, Zero Hour is specifically designed for urgent, current public issues rather than general constitutional debates.
National Policy for persons with disabilities was framed in the year
A)
2005
B)
2006
C)
2007
D)
2008
Option B is correct: 2006.
One of the problems of India’s Foreign Trade is-
A)
Payment of import in rupees
B)
Increasing quantity of exports
C)
Unfavourable terms of trade
D)
None of these
The correct answer is 'Unfavourable terms of trade'.
1. Understanding 'Terms of Trade' (ToT): Terms of trade refer to the ratio between a country's export prices and its import prices.
2. Why it is a problem for India: 'Unfavourable terms of trade' occur when the prices of a country's exports decline relative to the prices of its imports. For India, this means the country must export a larger volume of goods and services to afford the same volume of imports. This often happens when a country exports primary products (which have volatile or declining prices) and imports high-value manufactured goods or technology (which have rising prices).
3. Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) 'Payment of import in rupees' is generally not a standard problem; most international trade is conducted in hard currencies (like USD) or through specific bilateral agreements. If India could pay in rupees, it would actually reduce the pressure on its foreign exchange reserves.
- Option (b) 'Increasing quantity of exports' is a goal and a positive economic indicator, not a problem.
- Option (d) is incorrect as option (c) is a well-documented economic challenge for developing nations like India.
Which of the following indicates the performance of various industrial sectors of the Indian economy?
A)
Index of Industrial Production
B)
Purchasing Managers Index
C)
Wholesale Price Index
D)
All of these
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is the primary indicator used to measure the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period. It specifically tracks the performance of the industrial sector by dividing it into Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Purchasing Managers Index (PMI): While it provides insight into economic health, it is a sentiment-based indicator derived from surveys of private sector companies, reflecting expectations and trends rather than actual production volume.
- Wholesale Price Index (WPI): This is a measure of inflation (price changes) of goods traded in the wholesale market; it indicates price movements, not the physical performance or production volume of industrial sectors.
- Since only IIP directly measures the output/performance of industrial sectors, 'All of these' is incorrect.
________ aids protection of Constitutional provisions from the government assaults.
A)
Judicial Review
B)
Judicial Activism
C)
Judicial Power
D)
Judicial Silence
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. The question asks for the mechanism that protects Constitutional provisions from 'government assaults' (meaning arbitrary laws or executive actions that violate the Constitution). 2. Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders. If a law or order is found to be in conflict with the Constitution, the court can declare it null and void. This serves as the primary check and balance against government overreach. 3. Judicial Activism (Option b) refers to the judiciary taking a proactive role in policy-making or protecting rights, but it is a philosophy/approach rather than the formal legal mechanism of protection. 4. Judicial Power (Option c) is a general term for the authority of the courts, not a specific protective mechanism. 5. Judicial Silence (Option d) refers to the court's refusal to rule on a matter, which would not protect constitutional provisions from assault. Therefore, Judicial Review is the correct technical term for this protective function.
The 1st Five Year Plan period was-
A)
1950-1955
B)
1951 - 1956
C)
1955 — 1960
D)
1956-1961
The First Five-Year Plan of India was launched by the Government of India in 1951 and spanned the period from 1951 to 1956.
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Launch Date**: The plan was presented by the first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, and officially launched in 1951.
2. **Duration**: As a 'Five-Year' plan, it covered a five-year window, concluding in 1956.
3. **Focus**: The primary objective of this plan was the development of the primary sector, with a heavy emphasis on agriculture, irrigation, and power projects to stabilize the economy after independence and partition.
4. **Model**: It was based on the Harrod-Domar model.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 1950-1955 is incorrect as the plan started in 1951.
- Option (b) 1951-1956 is correct.
- Option (c) 1955-1960 is incorrect; this overlaps with the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961).
- Option (d) 1956-1961 is incorrect; this was the period of the Second Five-Year Plan.
Silver Revolution relates to-
A)
Petroleum
B)
Egg/ Poultry
C)
Fertilizer
D)
Cotton
The Silver Revolution refers to the period of dramatic increase in egg and poultry production in India. This was achieved through the introduction of hybrid breeds of poultry, the application of scientific methods in farming, and improved veterinary care. It took place primarily between 1969 and 1978.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) Petroleum: Not associated with any 'color' revolution in the agricultural sense; petroleum is a mineral resource.
- Option (c) Fertilizer: While fertilizers are used in various revolutions (like the Green Revolution), they are not the focus of the Silver Revolution.
- Option (d) Cotton: Cotton production is associated with the 'White Revolution' in some contexts (though White Revolution is primarily for Milk), but specifically, the Silver Revolution is dedicated to eggs/poultry.
Jawaharlal Nehru was the major advocate of Planning and
A)
Industrialization
B)
Agriculture
C)
Village Economy
D)
Service sector
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, was a strong proponent of a mixed economy with a heavy emphasis on state-led planning and rapid industrialization. He believed that for India to become self-reliant and modernize, it needed to develop a strong industrial base, particularly in heavy industries (such as steel and power), which he referred to as the 'temples of modern India.' This vision was most prominently reflected in the Second Five-Year Plan (the Mahalanobis Model), which prioritized heavy industrialization over agriculture. While he did not ignore agriculture, his primary ideological drive for national development was the synergy between centralized planning and industrial growth. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer, whereas options (b), (c), and (d) do not represent the primary 'advocacy' associated with Nehru's specific economic model of modernization.
Which of the following monetary measures has the highest liquidity?
A)
Land
B)
Currency
C)
Debenture
D)
Gold
Liquidity refers to the ease and speed with which an asset can be converted into a medium of exchange (cash) without affecting its market price.
1. **Currency (Option b):** This is the most liquid asset because it is already the primary medium of exchange. It can be spent immediately to purchase goods and services without needing to be converted into anything else. Therefore, it has the highest liquidity.
2. **Gold (Option d):** While gold is highly liquid compared to real estate, it must be sold or exchanged for currency before it can be used for most transactions, which takes time and may involve transaction costs.
3. **Debentures (Option c):** These are debt instruments. To get cash from a debenture, one must either wait for the maturity date or sell it in a secondary market, which depends on market demand and takes more time than spending cash.
4. **Land (Option a):** Real estate is considered an illiquid asset. Selling land involves a lengthy process of finding a buyer, legal verification, and registration, often taking weeks or months to convert into cash.
Which of the following are included in the first phase of land reforms in India?
A)
Abolition of intermediaries
B)
Ceiling on size of holdings
C)
Green Revolution
D)
Both (a) & (b)
Land reforms in India were implemented in several phases to remove the colonial land tenure system and ensure equitable distribution of land.
1. **Abolition of Intermediaries (Zamindari Abolition):** This was the primary focus of the first phase of land reforms immediately after independence. The goal was to remove the middlemen (Zamindars, Jagirdars) between the actual tiller of the soil and the state, giving ownership rights to the cultivators.
2. **Tenancy Reforms and Ceiling on Land Holdings:** Along with the abolition of intermediaries, the government introduced 'Land Ceiling' laws. This involved fixing the maximum size of land a family could hold; any land exceeding this limit (surplus land) was acquired by the state and redistributed to landless laborers or small farmers.
3. **Green Revolution:** This was not a 'land reform' in terms of ownership or tenure; rather, it was a technological and agricultural intervention (using HYV seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation) that began in the mid-1960s to increase food grain production.
Since both the abolition of intermediaries and the imposition of land ceilings were core components of the initial land reform initiatives, option (d) is the correct choice.
Which of the following is not a credit control objective of RBI?
A)
To achieve stability in the Country’s currency rate and money market.
B)
Controlling the business cycle and meeting the needs of the company.
C)
To achieve price stability.
D)
To meet financial obligations during a down turn in the economy as well as in regular times.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses credit control (monetary policy) to manage the macroeconomy.
1. Option (a) is a core objective: RBI manages the money supply and interest rates to ensure stability in the currency exchange rate and the money market.
2. Option (b) is a core objective: By adjusting credit flow, the RBI attempts to smooth out the business cycle (reducing the severity of booms and recessions) to ensure sustainable economic growth.
3. Option (c) is a core objective: Price stability (controlling inflation) is the primary mandate of the RBI's monetary policy framework.
4. Option (d) is INCORRECT because 'meeting financial obligations' refers to the liquidity management of an individual firm or a specific entity (micro-level financial management), not the objective of a central bank's credit control policy. The RBI controls the overall supply of credit in the economy; it does not exist to ensure that specific companies or individuals can meet their private financial obligations.
The Goods and Service Tax (GST) has been implemented from -
A)
July 1, 2018
B)
October 1, 2018
C)
July 1, 2017
D)
October 1, 2017
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based indirect tax that was implemented in India to replace multiple central and state taxes (such as VAT, Service Tax, and Central Excise Duty) to create a unified common market. It officially came into effect on July 1, 2017.
- Option (a) July 1, 2018: Incorrect; GST was already operational for a year.
- Option (b) October 1, 2018: Incorrect.
- Option (c) July 1, 2017: Correct; this is the official date of implementation.
- Option (d) October 1, 2017: Incorrect.
Who described the Indian federal system as ‘quasi-federal’?
A)
Granville Austin
B)
K.C. Wheare
C)
Ivor Jennings
D)
A.V. Dicey
The term 'quasi-federal' was coined by Professor K.C. Wheare to describe the Indian federal system. He argued that the Indian Constitution is not a true federation because it possesses a strong centralizing tendency, combining features of both a federal government (division of powers) and a unitary government (strong center).
Analysis of other options:
- Granville Austin: Described Indian federalism as 'cooperative federalism'.
- Ivor Jennings: Viewed the Indian Constitution as overly detailed and criticized its complexity, but is not the source of the 'quasi-federal' label.
- A.V. Dicey: A British jurist known for his work on the 'Rule of Law', not for the specific classification of the Indian federal system as quasi-federal.
The 92nd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution added which of the following languages to the Eighth Schedule?
A)
Urdu
B)
Bodo
C)
Hindi
D)
Sanskrit
The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added four languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) Urdu: Was already part of the Eighth Schedule since the original constitution/early amendments.
- Option (b) Bodo: Correct. It was added via the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
- Option (c) Hindi: One of the primary official languages and part of the original Eighth Schedule.
- Option (d) Sanskrit: Part of the original Eighth Schedule.
Therefore, among the given options, Bodo is the only language added by the 92nd Amendment.
What is the central concept of M.N. Roy’s Radical Humanism?
A)
Non-cooperation with colonial regimes
B)
Spiritual nationalism
C)
Class struggle as the basis for revolution
D)
Emphasis on individual freedom beyond political ideologies
M.N. Roy's philosophy of Radical Humanism (also known as New Humanism) evolved after his disillusionment with both nationalism and Marxism. The central tenet of this philosophy is the primacy of the individual. It posits that individual freedom, reason, and scientific rationality are the ultimate goals of society, moving beyond the constraints of class-based struggle (Marxism) or national identity (Nationalism).
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) refers to Gandhian strategies of resistance, not Roy's Radical Humanism.
- Option (b) is contrary to Roy's philosophy, as he emphasized scientific rationality and secularism over spiritualism.
- Option (c) describes Marxism/Communism. While Roy was once a prominent communist leader, Radical Humanism was his departure from the idea that class struggle is the sole driver of history.
- Option (d) correctly identifies the core of Radical Humanism: the liberation of the individual from all forms of collective domination, whether political, social, or ideological.
The Election Commission of India does not hold election for
A)
The Parliament
B)
State Legislative Assemblies
C)
Municipalities and the Panchayati Raj Institutions
D)
President and Vice-President
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a permanent constitutional body responsible for administering elections to the most important offices in the country.
1. **Parliament (Option a):** The ECI conducts elections for both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. **State Legislative Assemblies (Option b):** The ECI conducts elections for the Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad of the states.
3. **President and Vice-President (Option d):** The ECI is responsible for conducting the elections for the offices of the President and Vice-President of India.
4. **Municipalities and Panchayati Raj Institutions (Option c):** Elections to local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) are NOT conducted by the Election Commission of India. Instead, they are conducted by the **State Election Commission (SEC)** of the respective state, as mandated by Articles 243K and 243ZA of the Indian Constitution. This ensures the autonomy of local self-government.
Policy that deals with the taxation and expenditure decisions of the Government is-
A)
Monetary Policy
B)
Labour market Policies
C)
Trade Policy
D)
Fiscal Policy
The question asks for the policy that governs government taxation and expenditure.
1. **Fiscal Policy (Correct):** This is the means by which a government adjusts its spending levels and tax rates to monitor and influence a nation's economy. It involves two main tools: Government Expenditure (spending on infrastructure, healthcare, etc.) and Taxation (direct and indirect taxes).
2. **Monetary Policy (Incorrect):** This is managed by the Central Bank (e.g., RBI in India). It deals with the money supply, interest rates, and banking regulations to control inflation and stabilize the currency.
3. **Labour Market Policies (Incorrect):** These are policies designed to affect the supply and demand of labor, such as minimum wage laws, vocational training, and unemployment benefits.
4. **Trade Policy (Incorrect):** This refers to the regulations and agreements that constrain international trade, such as tariffs, quotas, and trade treaties.
Which institution is not a Local Self Government?
A)
Panchayati Raj
B)
Municipal Council
C)
Municipal Corporation
D)
Zonaji Council
Local Self-Government (LSG) refers to the management of local affairs by elected representatives of the local people. In India, this is divided into two main categories: Rural Local Government and Urban Local Government.
1. Panchayati Raj (Option a): This is the system of rural local self-government in India, constitutionalized by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992. It operates at the village, block, and district levels.
2. Municipal Council (Option b): These are urban local bodies established for smaller cities or towns, constitutionalized by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
3. Municipal Corporation (Option c): These are urban local bodies established for large metropolitan cities, also part of the 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
4. Zonaji Council (Option d): There is no recognized constitutional or statutory body known as a 'Zonaji Council' within the framework of Indian Local Self-Government. It is a fictitious or incorrect term in the context of Indian Polity, making it the correct answer to the question 'Which institution is NOT a Local Self Government?'
Which one of the following statement is not correct?
A)
The reverse REPO rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows.
B)
The REPO and reverse REPO are instruments used by the RBI to regulate liquidity in the Market.
C)
A REPO is a sale and repurchase of the same securities between two parties.
D)
A REPO rate is the rate at which the commercial banks borrow from the Central Bank.
To identify the incorrect statement, let's analyze each option based on monetary policy definitions:
1. **Option (d) is correct**: The REPO (Repurchase Option) rate is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks against government securities.
2. **Option (c) is correct**: A REPO is technically a transaction where one party sells securities to another with an agreement to repurchase them at a future date at a specified price.
3. **Option (b) is correct**: Both REPO and Reverse REPO are primary tools of the RBI's monetary policy used to manage the amount of money (liquidity) circulating in the banking system.
4. **Option (a) is incorrect**: The Reverse REPO rate is NOT the rate at which the RBI borrows. Instead, it is the rate at which the RBI **lends** money to commercial banks (or more accurately, the rate at which the RBI accepts deposits from commercial banks to absorb excess liquidity from the market). The RBI does not 'borrow' in the traditional commercial sense; it manages liquidity by offering a rate to banks to park their funds.
Therefore, statement (a) is the incorrect one.
How many members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India?
A)
284
B)
294
C)
274
D)
244
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. While the initial membership was higher, on January 24, 1950, the final session was held where the members signed the document. A total of 284 members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India. This number represents those who were present and participated in the final signing ceremony before the Constitution officially came into force on January 26, 1950. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not match the historical record of the signatories.
Gandhi led three major pan-Indian movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and ________ against British Rule.
A)
Jai Hind
B)
Anti-British
C)
Anti-India
D)
Quit India
Mahatma Gandhi led three primary mass movements that galvanized the Indian population against British colonial rule:
1. The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922): Aimed at resisting British rule through non-violent means and boycotting British goods and institutions.
2. The Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-1934): Initiated with the Dandi March to protest the salt tax and break colonial laws.
3. The Quit India Movement (1942): A decisive movement demanding an immediate end to British rule in India, characterized by the slogan 'Do or Die'.
Analysis of other options:
- 'Jai Hind' is a patriotic salutation, not a movement.
- 'Anti-British' is a general description of the sentiment, not the specific name of a movement.
- 'Anti-India' is factually incorrect as the movements were for Indian independence, not against India.
The primary sector within a country for the calculation of National Income includes -
A)
Small scale industries
B)
Retail trading
C)
Agriculture
D)
All of these
In economics, the economy is divided into three main sectors for the calculation of National Income:
1. **Primary Sector:** This sector involves the extraction and production of raw materials directly from nature. It includes activities such as Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing, and Mining. Since agriculture is the primary source of raw materials, it falls under this category.
2. **Secondary Sector:** This sector involves the processing of raw materials into finished goods (manufacturing). 'Small scale industries' (Option a) fall under the secondary sector because they involve manufacturing processes.
3. **Tertiary Sector:** This sector provides services to consumers and other businesses. 'Retail trading' (Option b) is a service-based activity and therefore falls under the tertiary sector.
Therefore, among the given options, only Agriculture belongs to the primary sector.
All Members of Parliament alone elect the
A)
Vice President
B)
President
C)
Prime Minister
D)
Chief Justice
The question asks who is elected by 'All Members of Parliament alone'.
1. **Vice President (Option a):** According to Article 66 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). This includes both elected and nominated members. No state legislative assemblies are involved. Therefore, the Vice President is elected by Members of Parliament alone.
2. **President (Option b):** The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament AND the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (and UTs of Delhi and Puducherry). Since state MLAs are involved, it is not 'Members of Parliament alone'.
3. **Prime Minister (Option c):** The Prime Minister is not directly elected by the Parliament. The President appoints the leader of the party or coalition that commands a majority in the Lok Sabha.
4. **Chief Justice (Option d):** The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India based on the collegium system; they are not elected by the Parliament.
Thus, the Vice President is the only official among the options elected exclusively by the members of the two houses of Parliament.