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Past Questions
Which of the following defines depreciation?
A)
Destruction ofa plant in a fire accident
B)
Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear
C)
Closure ofa plant due to labour trouble
D)
Closure ofa plant due to lockout
In economics and accounting, depreciation refers to the gradual decrease in the value of a physical asset over time. This occurs primarily due to three reasons: normal wear and tear from usage, obsolescence (becoming outdated), or the natural passage of time.
Step-by-step analysis of options:
- Option (a) 'Destruction of a plant in a fire accident' is classified as a 'Capital Loss' or an unexpected casualty, not depreciation, because it is a sudden, accidental event rather than a gradual decline.
- Option (b) 'Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear' perfectly matches the definition of depreciation, as it describes the systematic consumption of a fixed asset's value over its useful life.
- Option (c) 'Closure of a plant due to labour trouble' and Option (d) 'Closure of a plant due to lockout' refer to operational shutdowns or industrial disputes. While these may lead to financial losses or underutilization of assets, they do not define the process of depreciation itself.
The Parliament of India can make use of the residuary powers
A)
On the request of a state
B)
During national emergency as well as constitutional emergency as well ina state
C)
Only during national emergency
D)
Atall times
Under the Indian Constitution, the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States is detailed in the Seventh Schedule. This schedule contains three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. 'Residuary powers' refer to the authority to legislate on any matter that is not mentioned in any of these three lists. According to Article 248 of the Constitution of India, the power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List is vested exclusively in the Parliament. This power is inherent to the Parliament and is not contingent upon a national emergency, a request from a state, or any other special condition. Therefore, the Parliament can exercise residuary powers at all times.
Which is the biggest multipurpose project of India in terms of the total command area?
A)
Nagarjuna Sagar
B)
Bhakra Nangal
C)
Damodar
D)
Krishnaraja Sagar
The Nagarjuna Sagar Project, built across the Krishna River on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, is recognized as the largest multipurpose project in India specifically in terms of the total command area (the total area that can be irrigated by the project).
Breakdown of options:
- Nagarjuna Sagar: Holds the record for the largest command area among the listed options, providing irrigation to vast tracts of land in the Deccan plateau.
- Bhakra Nangal: While it is one of the largest dams in the world by height and volume of concrete/storage and is a massive multipurpose project on the Sutlej river, its primary focus is on power generation and irrigation for a specific region (Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan), but it does not exceed Nagarjuna Sagar in total command area.
- Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC): This was India's first multipurpose river valley project (modeled after the Tennessee Valley Authority), but it is smaller in scale compared to the southern giants.
- Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS): This is a significant dam in Karnataka, but its command area is much smaller than that of the Nagarjuna Sagar project.
Governor acts on the aid and advice of the
A)
Chief Minister
B)
Prime Minister
C)
Home Minister
D)
State Council of Ministers
According to the Constitution of India, the Governor is the nominal executive head of the state. Article 163 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions. While the Chief Minister leads the council, the constitutional mandate is that the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the 'Council of Ministers' as a collective body.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Chief Minister: While the CM is the primary advisor, the Governor is advised by the Council of Ministers collectively (Collective Responsibility).
- Option (b) Prime Minister: The Prime Minister advises the President of India at the Union level, not the Governor at the State level.
- Option (c) Home Minister: The Home Minister is a member of the Council of Ministers but does not independently provide the constitutional 'aid and advice' required for the Governor's executive actions.
Balance of Payments is an accounting statement that records monetary transactions between -
A)
Residents of a nation and the rest of the world
B)
Non-residents and the rest of the world
C)
Residents of a nation and non-residents
D)
None of the above
The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world over a specific period (usually a year).
1. Why Option (a) is correct: The BoP tracks all payments made to and receipts received from foreign entities. 'Residents' include individuals, businesses, and government agencies located within the country's borders, while 'the rest of the world' encompasses all foreign nations and international organizations.
2. Why Option (b) is incorrect: Transactions between non-residents and the rest of the world do not affect the domestic economy or the national accounts of the specific country measuring its BoP.
3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: While transactions occur between residents and non-residents, the term 'the rest of the world' is the standard economic definition used to encompass all external entities collectively, including foreign governments and international bodies, making (a) the more comprehensive and technically accurate definition.
Key components of BoP include the Current Account (trade in goods and services) and the Capital Account (investment and loans).
Who was known as the “Father of Indian Renaissance”?
A)
Raja Rammohan Roy
B)
MN Roy
C)
Rabindra Tagore
D)
Swami Vivekanand
Raja Rammohan Roy is widely regarded as the 'Father of Indian Renaissance' because of his pioneering efforts to modernize Indian society and reform Hindu religious practices. He founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828, campaigned vigorously against the practice of Sati (which led to its legal abolition in 1829), advocated for women's rights, and promoted Western education and monotheism.
Why other options are incorrect:
- MN Roy: A prominent political theorist and founder of the Communist Party of India/Radical Humanism, active much later than the start of the Renaissance.
- Rabindra Tagore: A polymath and Nobel laureate known for his literary and artistic contributions, but not the primary catalyst of the social renaissance.
- Swami Vivekanand: A key figure in introducing Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world and a spiritual leader, but he followed the path paved by the initial reformers like Roy.
There are a large number of hydro-electric projects in South India, because-
A)
Perennial rivers are there
B)
There is facility to collect rain water
C)
Coal producing areas is far away
D)
There are large number of water-falls
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Analysis of Hydro-electric Power (HEP):** Hydro-electric power generation requires two primary factors: a consistent flow of water and a significant 'head' (vertical drop/height). The higher the drop, the more kinetic energy is generated to turn turbines.
2. **Geography of South India:** The South Indian plateau (Deccan Plateau) is characterized by an undulating terrain with the Western Ghats acting as a steep escarpment. Because the plateau drops sharply toward the coast, many rivers flowing from the plateau to the sea create numerous waterfalls and rapids.
3. **Evaluating Option (d):** The presence of numerous waterfalls provides the necessary natural 'head' or vertical drop required for efficient hydro-electric power generation without needing excessively massive dams.
4. **Evaluating Option (a):** This is incorrect because the majority of rivers in South India (Peninsular rivers) are rain-fed and seasonal (non-perennial), unlike the Himalayan rivers.
5. **Evaluating Option (b):** While rainwater harvesting exists, it is not the primary driver for large-scale industrial hydro-electric projects.
6. **Evaluating Option (c):** While coal is primarily found in the East (Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh), the lack of coal does not 'cause' the existence of hydro-projects; rather, the physical geography (waterfalls) enables them.
Which mineral belt in India is rich in building materials?
A)
North-eastern plateau region
B)
South-western plateau region
C)
North-western region
D)
Himalayan region
India's mineral resources are distributed across several distinct belts. The North-western region (comprising Rajasthan and Gujarat) is particularly rich in non-metallic minerals used as building materials. This region is the primary source of limestone, gypsum, marble, and sandstone, which are essential for the construction industry.
Breakdown of other options:
- a. North-eastern plateau region: This region (Chhota Nagpur plateau) is the 'mineral heartland' of India, rich in metallic minerals like iron ore, manganese, and coal, rather than primarily building materials.
- b. South-western plateau region: This region is known for gold (Kolar), iron ore, and bauxite, but is not the primary hub for general building materials compared to the North-west.
- d. Himalayan region: While it has some deposits, it is not categorized as a major 'mineral belt' for industrial building materials due to difficult terrain and geological instability.
Rajya Sabha has got equal powers like the Lok Sabha in the matter of
A)
creating new all India service
B)
amending the constitution
C)
removal of government
D)
making cut motion
In the Indian Parliamentary system, the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and Rajya Sabha (Upper House) have different powers depending on the nature of the legislation.
1. **Amending the Constitution (Option b):** Under Article 368, a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament separately. There is no provision for a joint sitting in the case of a constitutional amendment. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has equal power to the Lok Sabha; if the Rajya Sabha rejects an amendment bill, the bill cannot become law.
2. **Creating new All India Services (Option a):** Under Article 312, the Rajya Sabha has a special power that the Lok Sabha does not. Only the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution (by a two-thirds majority) to create a new All India Service, which then empowers Parliament to do so.
3. **Removal of Government (Option c):** The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha. A 'No-Confidence Motion' can only be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has no power to remove the government from office.
4. **Making Cut Motion (Option d):** Cut motions are related to the Budget (Financial Bills). Since Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and the Lok Sabha has the final say on financial matters, the power to move cut motions effectively rests with the Lok Sabha.
Budget Deficit means-
A)
Fiscal Deficit — Interest Payment
B)
Revenue Receipts + Capital Receipts — Total Expenditure
C)
Total Expenditure — Total Receipts
D)
Revenue Expenditure — Revenue Receipts
In the context of a government budget, a 'Budget Deficit' (often referred to as the overall deficit) occurs when the government's total expenditure exceeds its total receipts (income).
Step-by-step analysis of the options:
1. Option (c) 'Total Expenditure — Total Receipts' is the general definition of a budget deficit. It represents the gap between what the government spends and what it earns from all sources (excluding borrowings).
2. Option (a) 'Fiscal Deficit — Interest Payment' refers to the 'Primary Deficit'. Primary deficit is used to see how much the government needs to borrow to meet expenses other than interest payments on previous loans.
3. Option (b) 'Revenue Receipts + Capital Receipts — Total Expenditure' would actually calculate a budget surplus if the result is positive, or the negative of a deficit.
4. Option (d) 'Revenue Expenditure — Revenue Receipts' is the definition of the 'Revenue Deficit'. This specifically measures the gap in the government's day-to-day operational funding without considering capital assets or liabilities.
Which of the following is not the work of the legislature?
A)
Making law
B)
Budgeting
C)
Passing of Budget
D)
Control on the executive
To solve this question, we must distinguish between the functions of the Legislature and the Executive in a parliamentary system.
1. **Making law (Option a):** This is the primary function of the legislature. The legislature debates and passes bills which eventually become laws.
2. **Passing of Budget (Option c):** While the legislature does not create the budget, it has the 'power of the purse.' No money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the legislature passing an Appropriation Bill. Thus, passing the budget is a core legislative function.
3. **Control on the executive (Option d):** In a parliamentary system, the executive is collectively responsible to the legislature. The legislature exercises control through questions, motions, and no-confidence votes.
4. **Budgeting (Option b):** 'Budgeting' refers to the actual process of preparing, estimating, and drafting the financial statements for the coming year. This is an administrative task performed by the Executive (specifically the Ministry of Finance). The executive prepares the budget; the legislature merely reviews, debates, and passes it.
Therefore, budgeting is a function of the Executive, not the Legislature.
The concept of over population is based on the-
A)
Absolute number of people in an area
B)
Density of population in that area
C)
Availability of food in the area
D)
Supporting capacity of the land in terms of varied human occupations
Overpopulation is not a measure of the total number of people (absolute number) or how crowded a place is (density), but rather a measure of the relationship between the population and the available resources.
1. Why 'd' is correct: Overpopulation occurs when the population exceeds the 'carrying capacity' of the environment. Carrying capacity is the maximum population size that an area can support indefinitely without degrading the environment. This includes not just food, but the ability of the land to provide diverse economic opportunities (occupations) and resources to sustain a decent standard of living for all inhabitants.
2. Why 'a' and 'b' are incorrect: A region can have a high absolute number of people or high density (like Singapore or Monaco) but not be 'overpopulated' if it has the technological and economic capacity to support that population.
3. Why 'c' is incorrect: While food availability is a critical component of carrying capacity, it is too narrow. Overpopulation also involves access to water, housing, healthcare, and employment opportunities. Therefore, 'supporting capacity' (option d) is the more comprehensive and geographically accurate term.
Economic Survey is published by-
A)
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
B)
NITI Aayog
C)
Ministry of Finance
D)
Ministry of Information & Broadcasting
The Economic Survey is an annual document presented in the Indian Parliament before the presentation of the Union Budget. It is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs, which falls under the Ministry of Finance. The survey is typically authored by the Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) to the Government of India.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is responsible for collecting data, calculating GDP, and publishing the National Accounts, but it does not publish the Economic Survey.
- Option (b): NITI Aayog is the policy think-tank of the Government of India; while it provides strategic and technical advice, it is not the publishing authority for the Economic Survey.
- Option (d): The Ministry of Information & Broadcasting handles government communication and media, not economic analysis or reporting.
The 1st Five Year Plan period was-
A)
1950-1955
B)
1951-1956
C)
1955 — 1960
D)
1956-1961
The First Five-Year Plan of India was launched by the Government of India from 1951 to 1956. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model and focused primarily on the development of the agricultural sector to achieve food security, as the country was facing severe food shortages after independence and partition.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 1950-1955: Incorrect. While the Planning Commission was established in 1950, the first formal plan started in 1951.
- Option (b) 1951-1956: Correct. This is the official duration of the First Five-Year Plan.
- Option (c) 1955-1960: Incorrect. This does not align with any official five-year plan cycle.
- Option (d) 1956-1961: Incorrect. The Second Five-Year Plan began in 1956 and ran until 1961, focusing on rapid industrialization (Mahalanobis model).
Which institution is not a Local Self Government?
A)
Panchayati Raj
B)
Municipal Council
C)
Municipal Corporation
D)
Zonal Council
Local Self Government (LSG) refers to the management of local affairs by elected representatives of the local people. In India, LSG is divided into two main categories: Rural and Urban.
1. Panchayati Raj (Option a): This is the system of rural local self-government, constitutionalized by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
2. Municipal Council (Option b): This is a form of urban local self-government for smaller cities or towns, constitutionalized by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
3. Municipal Corporation (Option c): This is a form of urban local self-government for large metropolitan cities, also constitutionalized by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
4. Zonal Council (Option d): Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established by the Government of India under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. They are advisory bodies designed to promote cooperation and coordination between different states in a specific zone and between the Union and the States. They are NOT elected local bodies and do not function as local self-governments.
Nehru’s approach to planning for India’s development was primarily influenced by:
A)
Gandhian village economy
B)
Free-market capitalism
C)
Soviet-style centralized planning
D)
Integral humanism
Jawaharlal Nehru, India's first Prime Minister, was deeply impressed by the rapid industrialization of the Soviet Union (USSR). He believed that for a newly independent, underdeveloped nation like India to achieve rapid growth and self-reliance, it required a strong state-led mechanism to allocate resources. This led to the establishment of the Planning Commission in 1950 and the adoption of Five-Year Plans, which were directly modeled after the Soviet centralized planning system.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Gandhian village economy: While Nehru respected Gandhi, he disagreed with the Gandhian vision of a decentralized economy based on village industries (Khadi), preferring heavy industrialization.
- b. Free-market capitalism: Nehru was skeptical of unrestrained capitalism, believing it led to inequality and exploitation; he instead advocated for a 'Mixed Economy' with a dominant public sector.
- d. Integral humanism: This is a political and social philosophy developed by Deendayal Upadhyaya and associated with the Bharatiya Jana Sangh/BJP, which is ideologically distinct from Nehru's Fabian socialism.
Which of the following is not a credit control objective of RBI?
A)
To achieve stability in the Country’s currency rate and money market.
B)
Controlling the business cycle and meeting the needs of the company.
C)
Toachieve price stability.
D)
To meet financial obligations during a down turn in the economy as well as in regular times.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses credit control (monetary policy) to manage the overall economy, not to manage the individual financial obligations of specific entities.
- Option (a) is a core objective: RBI manages the money supply and interest rates to maintain stability in the exchange rate and the money market.
- Option (b) is a core objective: By adjusting credit flow, RBI attempts to smooth out the business cycle (reducing the severity of booms and busts) to ensure sustainable economic growth.
- Option (c) is a core objective: Price stability (controlling inflation) is the primary mandate of the RBI under the current flexible inflation targeting framework.
- Option (d) is incorrect because 'meeting financial obligations' is the responsibility of individual borrowers, companies, or the government (fiscal management), not a macro-economic credit control objective of the central bank. The RBI provides liquidity to the banking system (Lender of Last Resort), but its 'credit control objective' is not to ensure that specific entities meet their debts.
Who has fixed the Minimum Support Price for crops?
A)
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
B)
Commission for Agriculture Cost and Prices
C)
NITI Aayog
D)
Parliament
The process of fixing the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India involves two distinct stages: recommendation and approval.
1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Its role is to analyze costs of production and recommend the MSP for various crops.
2. However, the CACP does not have the authority to 'fix' or finalize the price. The final decision and the formal approval/fixing of the MSP are done by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), which is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option b (CACP): It only recommends the prices; it does not fix them.
- Option c (NITI Aayog): It is a policy think-tank and does not have the executive authority to fix MSP.
- Option d (Parliament): While Parliament discusses agricultural policies, the executive function of fixing prices is handled by the Cabinet Committee.
The primary sector within a country for the calculation of National Income includes -
A)
Small scale industries
B)
Retail trading
C)
Agriculture
D)
All ofthese
In the calculation of National Income, the economy is divided into three main sectors:
1. Primary Sector: This sector involves the extraction and production of raw materials from nature. It includes activities such as Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing, Mining, and Quarrying. Since Agriculture is the core activity of this sector, option (c) is correct.
2. Secondary Sector: This sector involves the processing of raw materials into finished goods (manufacturing). Small-scale industries (option a) fall under this category.
3. Tertiary Sector: This sector provides services to consumers and other businesses. Retail trading (option b) is a service-based activity and therefore falls under the Tertiary sector.
Since only Agriculture belongs to the primary sector, option (d) 'All of these' is incorrect.
The iron-ore mined at Bailadila in Chhattisgarh is mostly-
A)
Hematite
B)
Magnetite
C)
Siderite
D)
Limonite
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Location Analysis**: Bailadila is located in the Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh. It is one of the most significant iron-ore mining regions in India.
2. **Ore Quality**: The iron ore found in the Bailadila range is renowned for its exceptionally high grade (high iron content), often exceeding 60-65%.
3. **Mineral Identification**: High-grade iron ore found in the Bastar plateau and Bailadila hills is primarily 'Hematite'. Hematite is the most important industrial iron ore in India due to its high iron content and suitability for blast furnaces.
4. **Evaluating Options**:
- **Hematite (Correct)**: The dominant ore in Bailadila, known for its reddish color and high purity.
- **Magnetite**: While found in India (primarily in Karnataka and Odisha), it is not the primary ore of the Bailadila mines.
- **Siderite**: A lower-grade iron carbonate ore, not characteristic of the high-grade deposits of Chhattisgarh.
- **Limonite**: A hydrated iron oxide, not the primary commercial ore extracted from the Bailadila range.
The 1st Plan Holiday in independent India covered the period -
A)
1966 — 1969
B)
1965 — 1968
C)
1964 - 1968
D)
1965 — 1969
The 'Plan Holiday' refers to a period in India's economic history when the government shifted from Five-Year Plans to annual plans due to severe economic instability.
1. **Timeline**: The Third Five-Year Plan (1961–1966) ended in failure due to several crises. Consequently, the government implemented three annual plans from 1966 to 1969, which is known as the first Plan Holiday.
2. **Causes**: The primary reasons for this break were the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, the Sino-Indian War of 1962, and severe droughts leading to food shortages.
3. **Outcome**: During this period, the government focused on immediate stabilization and agriculture, eventually leading to the 'Green Revolution'.
Comparing this to the options:
- Option (a) 1966—1969 matches the historical record.
- Options (b), (c), and (d) provide incorrect year ranges that do not align with the official transition between the Third and Fourth Five-Year Plans.
Which one of the following is NOT a part of the definition of a town as per the Census of India?
A)
Population density of 400 persons per sq km
B)
Presence of municipality
C)
More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector
D)
Population size of more than 5,000 persons
According to the Census of India, a settlement is classified as a 'Town' if it satisfies the following three criteria:
1. It has a minimum population of 5,000 (Option d is correct).
2. It has a population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer (Option a is correct).
3. At least 75% of the male main working population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits (secondary and tertiary sectors).
Additionally, any settlement with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board, or notified town area committee is automatically classified as a town regardless of the above criteria (Option b is correct).
Option (c) states that more than 75% of the population is engaged in the 'primary sector' (agriculture, forestry, fishing). This is the opposite of the actual census requirement, which mandates that 75% of the male main working population must be engaged in 'non-agricultural' (non-primary) pursuits. Therefore, option (c) is NOT a part of the definition.
The summer monsoon winds travel east to west from Assam to Punjab because-
A)
The path of the winds is diverted by the Himalayas
B)
Assam has high pressure whereas Punjab has low pressure
C)
The summer monsoon winds originate in Assam
D)
Here the trade wind blows from east to west
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. During the summer monsoon, moisture-laden winds (the South-West Monsoon) blow from the Indian Ocean toward the Indian landmass. 2. As these winds move northward, they encounter the massive physical barrier of the Himalayan mountain range, which stretches across the northern border of India. 3. Because the Himalayas are too high for the winds to cross, the winds are forced to deflect and turn westward. 4. This diversion causes the winds to travel from the east (Assam/North-East India) toward the west (Punjab/North-West India), bringing heavy rainfall to the plains of Northern India.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option b: Pressure gradients generally drive the monsoon from the sea (high pressure) to the land (low pressure), but the specific east-to-west movement across the northern plains is a result of topography, not a pressure difference between Assam and Punjab.
- Option c: The summer monsoon winds originate over the Indian Ocean (specifically the South-West monsoon), not in Assam.
- Option d: Trade winds generally blow from east to west globally, but the specific movement of the monsoon winds across the northern Indian border is a localized effect of the Himalayan barrier.
In India, 100% FDI is permitted in which of the following sector?
A)
Telecom sector
B)
Insurance
C)
Banking
D)
Power exchange
Step-by-step analysis of FDI limits in the given sectors:
1. **Power Exchange (Option d):** 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is permitted under the automatic route in the power exchange sector. This is part of the government's effort to liberalize the energy market and attract global capital for infrastructure.
2. **Telecom Sector (Option a):** While the government has recently allowed 100% FDI in telecom via the automatic route, historically it was capped or required government approval for certain percentages. However, in the context of standard competitive exam questions comparing these specific sectors, Power Exchange is a definitive 100% automatic route sector.
3. **Insurance (Option b):** The FDI limit in the insurance sector was increased from 49% to 74% (via the Insurance (Amendment) Act, 2021). It is not 100%.
4. **Banking (Option c):** FDI in the banking sector is generally capped at 74% (under the automatic route for certain categories), but it is not permitted up to 100% due to regulatory requirements and the need for domestic control over the financial system.
Therefore, among the provided options, Power Exchange is the sector where 100% FDI is permitted.
Which town in Mizoram is located on the bank of Khawthlangtuipui River?
A)
Mamit
B)
Zawlnuam
C)
Siaha
D)
Tlabung
The Khawthlangtuipui River (also known as the Kaladan River in Myanmar) is a major river that forms a natural boundary between India (Mizoram) and Myanmar. The town of Zawlnuam is situated on the banks of this river.
Analysis of other options:
- Mamit: While Mamit is a district headquarters in the western part of Mizoram, it is not the primary town associated with the banks of the Khawthlangtuipui.
- Siaha: Located in the southern part of Mizoram, it is far from the Khawthlangtuipui river system.
- Tlabung: Tlabung is located on the banks of the Tlawng River, not the Khawthlangtuipui.