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Past Questions
Green Revolution in India mainly related to-
A)
Oilseed
B)
Fish
C)
Foodgrains
D)
Non-Conventional Energy Sources
The Green Revolution in India, which began in the mid-1960s, was a transformative period in agriculture aimed at increasing food security. It primarily focused on increasing the production of foodgrains, specifically wheat and rice, through the introduction of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, expanded irrigation systems, and the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Oilseed: While there were later attempts to expand these techniques to oilseeds (often referred to as the 'Yellow Revolution'), the primary focus of the Green Revolution was foodgrains.
- Option (b) Fish: The increase in fish production is associated with the 'Blue Revolution'.
- Option (d) Non-Conventional Energy Sources: This relates to energy policy and sustainable power (like solar or wind), not the agricultural productivity movement known as the Green Revolution.
Gandhi led three major pan-Indian movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and ________ against British Rule.
A)
Jai Hind
B)
Anti-British
C)
Anti-India
D)
Quit India
Mahatma Gandhi led three primary mass movements that galvanized the Indian population against British colonial rule:
1. The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922): Aimed at resisting British rule through non-violent means and boycotting British goods and institutions.
2. The Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-1934): Initiated with the Dandi March to protest the salt tax and break colonial laws.
3. The Quit India Movement (1942): A decisive movement demanding an immediate end to British rule in India, characterized by the slogan 'Do or Die'.
Analysis of other options:
- 'Jai Hind' is a patriotic salutation, not a movement.
- 'Anti-British' is a general description of the sentiment, not the specific name of a movement.
- 'Anti-India' is factually incorrect as the movements were for Indian independence, not against India.
Governor acts on the aid and advice of the
A)
Chief Minister
B)
Prime Minister
C)
Home Minister
D)
State Council of Ministers
According to Article 163 of the Constitution of India, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions. While the Governor is the nominal executive head of the state, the real executive power rests with the Council of Ministers.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Chief Minister: While the Chief Minister leads the Council, the Governor acts on the advice of the 'Council of Ministers' as a collective body, not just the individual Chief Minister.
- Option (b) Prime Minister: The Prime Minister advises the President of India at the Union level, not the Governor of a state.
- Option (c) Home Minister: The Home Minister is a member of the Council of Ministers but does not independently provide the constitutional 'aid and advice' to the Governor.
According to the Global Data Lab, ________ is the top-ranking state in the context of Human Development Index in India.
A)
Mizoram
B)
Kerala
C)
UP
D)
MP
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic used to rank countries and sub-national entities by levels of human development, incorporating indicators such as life expectancy, education (mean years of schooling), and per capita income. According to data provided by the Global Data Lab and consistent with reports from the UNDP and NITI Aayog, Kerala consistently ranks as the top state in India. This is primarily due to its exceptionally high literacy rates, superior healthcare infrastructure, and high life expectancy compared to other Indian states.
- Option (a) Mizoram: While Mizoram has a high literacy rate, its overall HDI indicators (especially health and income) are lower than Kerala's.
- Option (c) UP (Uttar Pradesh): This state typically ranks lower in HDI due to challenges in education and healthcare access for its large population.
- Option (d) MP (Madhya Pradesh): This state also ranks significantly lower than Kerala in the HDI metrics.
Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments or orders?
A)
Article 137
B)
Article 138
C)
Article 139
D)
Article 140
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analysis of Article 137: The Constitution of India under Article 137 explicitly states that 'Subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament... the Supreme Court shall have power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it'. This is known as the 'Review Jurisdiction' of the Supreme Court, allowing it to correct any apparent error or miscarriage of justice in its own previous decisions.
2. Analysis of Option b (Article 138): This article deals with the enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court by Parliament.
3. Analysis of Option c (Article 139): This article relates to the transfer of certain cases from High Courts to the Supreme Court if a case involves a substantial question of law of general importance.
4. Analysis of Option d (Article 140): This article provides for ancillary powers of the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders, or rules to ensure the complete administration of justice.
Therefore, Article 137 is the only correct provision that empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments.
Who was known as the “Father of Indian Renaissance”?
A)
Raja Rammohan Roy
B)
MN Roy
C)
Rabindra Tagore
D)
Swami Vivekanand
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Identification of the Term**: The 'Father of Indian Renaissance' refers to the individual who spearheaded the socio-religious reform movements in India during the 19th century, bridging the gap between traditional Indian thought and modern Western rationalism.
2. **Analyzing Raja Rammohan Roy (Option a)**: He was a pioneer of modern India. He founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828, campaigned vigorously against the practice of Sati (which led to its legal abolition in 1829), opposed caste discrimination, and advocated for women's rights and English education. Due to these foundational contributions to the intellectual and social awakening of India, he is universally recognized as the 'Father of Indian Renaissance'.
3. **Evaluating Other Options**:
- **MN Roy (Option b)**: A revolutionary and philosopher known for introducing Marxism to India and founding the Communist Party of India; he belongs to a later political era.
- **Rabindra Tagore (Option c)**: A polymath and Nobel laureate known for his literature and art, and for founding Visva-Bharati University, but not the primary catalyst of the initial Renaissance.
- **Swami Vivekanand (Option d)**: A key figure in introducing Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world and a major spiritual reformer, but his work followed the groundwork laid by Roy.
The 1st Plan Holiday in independent India covered the period -
A)
1966-1969
B)
1965 — 1968
C)
1964-1968
D)
1965 - 1969
The 'Plan Holiday' refers to a period in India's economic history when the government shifted from Five-Year Plans to annual plans due to severe economic instability.
1. **Timeline**: The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966) ended in failure. Consequently, the government implemented three annual plans covering the period from 1966 to 1969.
2. **Causes**: The primary reasons for this 'holiday' were the economic shocks caused by the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 and the Sino-Indian War of 1962, along with severe droughts leading to food shortages.
3. **Outcome**: During this period, the government focused on immediate recovery and agricultural stability before launching the Fourth Five-Year Plan in 1969.
Comparing this to the options:
- Option (a) 1966-1969 matches the historical record.
- Options (b), (c), and (d) provide incorrect date ranges that do not align with the official transition between the Third and Fourth Five-Year Plans.
Which one of the following rivers drains into Arabian Sea?
A)
Yamuna
B)
Mahanadi
C)
Krishna
D)
Narmada
To determine which river drains into the Arabian Sea, we analyze the drainage patterns of the given options:
1. **Narmada (Option d):** The Narmada is one of the major west-flowing rivers of Peninsular India. It originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh and flows westward through a rift valley before draining into the Arabian Sea via the Gulf of Khambhat. This makes it the correct answer.
2. **Yamuna (Option a):** The Yamuna is a major tributary of the Ganga. It flows eastward and joins the Ganga at Prayagraj; the combined system eventually drains into the Bay of Bengal.
3. **Mahanadi (Option b):** The Mahanadi is an east-flowing river that originates in Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha to drain into the Bay of Bengal.
4. **Krishna (Option c):** The Krishna is another major east-flowing river of the Peninsular plateau that drains into the Bay of Bengal.
Therefore, among the given options, only the Narmada drains into the Arabian Sea.
Blue Revolution was first launched in India during which of the following Five Year Plan?
A)
5th Five Year Plan
B)
6th Five Year Plan
C)
7th Five Year Plan
D)
8th Five Year Plan
The Blue Revolution, also known as 'Neel Kranti', refers to the growth and intensification of aquaculture and fisheries production in India. It was officially launched during the 7th Five Year Plan (1985–1990) to enhance fish production and improve the socio-economic conditions of fishing communities.
- Option a (5th Plan: 1974-78) and Option b (6th Plan: 1978-82) preceded the formal launch of the Blue Revolution initiative.
- Option d (8th Plan: 1992-97) occurred after the initial launch, though fisheries continued to receive focus during this period.
Therefore, the 7th Five Year Plan is the correct period for the initiation of the Blue Revolution in India.
Which of the following movements is an example of regionalism in India?
A)
Quit India Movement
B)
Telangana Movement
C)
Non-Cooperation Movement
D)
Green Revolution
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Definition of Regionalism**: Regionalism refers to a political or social movement where people of a specific geographical area seek to protect or promote their distinct identity, culture, language, or economic interests, often demanding greater autonomy or the creation of a separate state.
2. **Analyzing Option (b) Telangana Movement**: This was a movement driven by the people of the Telangana region to separate from Andhra Pradesh to form a new state. It was based on perceived economic neglect, cultural distinctiveness, and a desire for political autonomy. This fits the definition of regionalism perfectly.
3. **Analyzing Option (a) Quit India Movement**: This was a national-level movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942 demanding the end of British rule in India. It was a nationalist movement, not a regionalist one.
4. **Analyzing Option (c) Non-Cooperation Movement**: This was another pan-Indian nationalist movement (1920-1922) aimed at attaining Swaraj (self-rule) through non-violent means. It was not focused on a specific region's identity.
5. **Analyzing Option (d) Green Revolution**: This was an agricultural transformation (technological and systemic) aimed at increasing food grain production in India. It was a socio-economic development initiative, not a political or social movement based on regional identity.
Conclusion: The Telangana Movement is the only example of regionalism among the given options.
How many members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India?
A)
284
B)
294
C)
274
D)
244
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. While the initial membership was higher, on January 24, 1950, the final session was held where the members signed the document. A total of 284 members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India. This number represents those who were present and participated in the final signing ceremony before the Constitution officially came into force on January 26, 1950. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not match the historical record of the signatories.
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister recently launched National Mission on Natural Farming till the end of -
A)
16th Finance Commission
B)
15th Finance Commission
C)
17th Finance Commission
D)
None of these
The Government of India, through the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister, has introduced the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF). This mission is designed to promote chemical-free farming and sustainable agricultural practices to improve soil health and farmer income. The operational timeline and funding framework for this specific mission have been aligned to run until the end of the 16th Finance Commission period. The Finance Commission's cycles typically dictate the fiscal planning and resource allocation for major national schemes. Therefore, the mission is slated to continue until the conclusion of the 16th Finance Commission's tenure.
What does the term ‘Union of States’ in the Indian Constitution signify?
A)
A Federal Government
B)
An Indestructible Union
C)
A Quasi-Federal System
D)
Sovereign Equality of States
The term 'Union of States' is used in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution instead of 'Federation of States'. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar explained that this phrasing was chosen for two specific reasons: 1) The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the states to join together (unlike the USA), and 2) The states have no right to secede from the federation. Therefore, while the internal boundaries of states can be changed by the Parliament (making the states 'destructible'), the Union itself is 'indestructible'.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): While India has a federal government, the specific term 'Union of States' emphasizes the permanence of the union over the federal structure.
- Option (c): 'Quasi-Federal' is a description used by scholars like K.C. Wheare to describe the nature of the Indian system, but it is not what the specific phrase 'Union of States' signifies in the constitutional text.
- Option (d): Sovereign equality is a characteristic of independent nations in international law; Indian states are not sovereign entities but administrative units within a sovereign Union.
Which Constitutional provision upholds secularism in India?
A)
Article 14
B)
Article 15
C)
Article 25
D)
Article 30
Secularism in the Indian Constitution is not defined by a single article but is upheld through a cluster of Fundamental Rights (Articles 25–28).
1. **Article 25** is the primary provision that upholds secularism as it guarantees the 'freedom of conscience' and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion to all persons. This ensures that the state does not impose a state religion and allows individuals the autonomy of faith.
Why other options are incorrect:
- **Article 14** deals with the 'Equality before Law' and 'Equal Protection of Laws'. While it supports the general principle of equality, it is not specifically a provision for religious secularism.
- **Article 15** prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. While it prevents religious discrimination, Article 25 is the foundational pillar for the positive right to religious freedom.
- **Article 30** provides the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. This is a specific protection for minority rights rather than the general constitutional provision upholding the secular nature of the state's relationship with religion.
Fighth Schedule of the Constitution of India is related to
A)
Municipality
B)
Panchayati Raj
C)
Languages
D)
Religion
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. It provides for the creation of Tribes Advisory Councils to advise on the administration of these areas. While the 73rd Amendment Act (1992) formally institutionalized Panchayati Raj across India, the Fifth Schedule provides the specific framework for the administration of tribal areas, which is the foundation for local self-governance (Panchayati Raj) in these specific regions (often referred to as PESA - Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act).
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) Municipality: This is primarily governed by the 74th Amendment Act and the 12th Schedule.
- Option (c) Languages: This is covered under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
- Option (d) Religion: Religious freedom and matters are covered under Fundamental Rights (Articles 25-28) and are not the subject of the Fifth Schedule.
The Parliament of India can make use of the residuary powers
A)
On the request of a state
B)
During national emergency as well as constitutional emergency as well in a state
C)
Only during national emergency
D)
At all times
Under the Indian Constitution, the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States is detailed in the Seventh Schedule. This schedule contains three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. 'Residuary powers' refer to the authority to make laws on any matter that is not mentioned in any of these three lists. According to Article 248 of the Constitution of India, the power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List is vested exclusively in the Parliament. Unlike the power to legislate on 'State List' subjects (which usually requires a special condition like a National Emergency or a request from states), the power over residuary subjects is an inherent, permanent power of the Parliament. Therefore, the Parliament can exercise residuary powers at all times, regardless of whether there is an emergency or a specific request from a state.
Balance of Payments is an accounting statement that records monetary transactions between -
A)
Residents of a nation and the rest of the world
B)
Non-residents and the rest of the world
C)
Residents of a nation and non-residents
D)
None of the above
The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world over a specific period (usually a year).
1. Why Option (a) is correct: The definition of BoP specifically tracks the flow of goods, services, and capital between 'residents' (which includes individuals, businesses, and government agencies within a country) and the 'rest of the world' (all other foreign nations).
2. Why Option (b) is incorrect: Transactions between non-residents of a country do not affect that country's BoP; they are recorded in the BoP of the respective countries involved.
3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: While 'non-residents' are part of the 'rest of the world', the standard economic definition uses the phrase 'rest of the world' to encompass all foreign entities, including foreign governments and international organizations, making (a) the more comprehensive and standard academic definition.
BoP consists of two main accounts: the Current Account (trade in goods and services, income, and transfers) and the Capital Account (foreign direct investment, portfolio investment, and loans).
Which of the following defines depreciation?
A)
Destruction of a plant in a fire accident
B)
Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear
C)
Closure of a plant due to labour trouble
D)
Closure of a plant due to lockout
Depreciation is defined as the gradual decrease in the value of a tangible fixed asset over its useful life. This reduction in value occurs primarily due to normal wear and tear, obsolescence (becoming outdated), or the passage of time.
Step-by-step analysis of options:
- Option (b) is correct because 'wear and tear' is the classic definition of depreciation, representing the systematic allocation of the cost of an asset over its operational life.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the destruction of a plant in a fire is considered a 'capital loss' or an 'extraordinary loss,' not depreciation. Depreciation is a gradual process, whereas a fire is a sudden, accidental event.
- Option (c) and (d) are incorrect because the closure of a plant due to labor trouble or lockouts relates to operational shutdowns or industrial disputes. While the assets may still depreciate while the plant is closed, the act of closing the plant itself is not the definition of depreciation.
The present Preamble of the Indian constitution makes India
A)
A sovereign, socialist and democratic republic
B)
A sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic
C)
A sovereign republic with a socialist pattern of society
D)
A socialist, secular and democratic republic
The Preamble to the Constitution of India defines the nature of the Indian State. The exact phrasing used in the present Preamble is: 'SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC'.
1. **Sovereign**: India is an independent entity, not subject to the control of any other state.
2. **Socialist**: Added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, indicating a commitment to social and economic equality.
3. **Secular**: Also added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, meaning the state has no official religion and treats all religions equally.
4. **Democratic**: The government is elected by the people through universal adult franchise.
5. **Republic**: The head of state (President) is elected, not a hereditary monarch.
Comparing the options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because it omits 'Secular'.
- Option (c) is incorrect as it misrepresents the formal terminology of the Preamble.
- Option (d) is incorrect because it omits 'Sovereign'.
Therefore, Option (b) is the only complete and accurate description as per the current text of the Constitution.
B.R. Ambedkar’s Political Philosophy focused on:
A)
Nationalism rooted in Vedic traditions
B)
Annihilation of caste and the assertion of Dalit rights
C)
Gandhian non-violence as a means of social change
D)
Marxist economic redistribution
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's political philosophy was primarily centered on the struggle against the oppressive caste system and the fight for the rights of the marginalized, specifically the Dalits (formerly referred to as untouchables). His seminal work, 'Annihilation of Caste', explicitly argues that the caste system is not merely a division of labor but a division of laborers, and that social democracy is a prerequisite for political democracy.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because Ambedkar critiqued Vedic traditions that justified the varna system and caste hierarchy.
- Option (c) is incorrect because Ambedkar had significant ideological disagreements with Mahatma Gandhi regarding the method of removing untouchability and the nature of the caste system.
- Option (d) is incorrect because while Ambedkar was influenced by some aspects of Western political thought and social justice, his primary focus was on social reform and legal rights rather than a purely Marxist economic redistribution model.
Vice President of India presides over the Sessions.
A)
Parliament
B)
Lok Sabha
C)
Rajya Sabha
D)
Cabinet
Under the Constitution of India, the Vice President holds a dual role. First, they are the second-highest constitutional authority in the country. Second, they serve as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament). In this capacity, the Vice President presides over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha, maintains order, and ensures that the rules of procedure are followed.
Why other options are incorrect:
- (a) Parliament: The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha. While the VP presides over one house, they do not preside over the entire Parliament (joint sessions are presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha).
- (b) Lok Sabha: The Lok Sabha is presided over by the Speaker, who is elected by the members of the house.
- (d) Cabinet: The Cabinet is presided over by the Prime Minister of India.
One of the problems of India’s Foreign Trade is-
A)
Payment of import in rupees
B)
Increasing quantity of exports
C)
Unfavourable terms of trade
D)
None of these
The correct answer is 'Unfavourable terms of trade'.
1. Understanding 'Terms of Trade' (ToT): Terms of trade refer to the ratio between a country's export prices and its import prices.
2. Why it is a problem for India: 'Unfavourable terms of trade' occur when the prices of a country's exports decline relative to the prices of its imports. For India, this means the country must export a larger volume of goods and services to afford the same volume of imports. This often happens when a country exports primary products (which have volatile or declining prices) and imports high-value manufactured goods or technology (which have rising prices).
3. Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) 'Payment of import in rupees' is generally not a standard problem; most international trade is conducted in hard currencies (like USD) or through specific bilateral agreements. If India could pay in rupees, it would actually reduce the pressure on its foreign exchange reserves.
- Option (b) 'Increasing quantity of exports' is a goal and a positive economic indicator, not a problem.
- Option (d) is incorrect as option (c) is a well-documented economic challenge for developing nations like India.
Which of the following is not credit rating agencies?
A)
CRISIL
B)
ICRA
C)
CARE
D)
IDBI
A Credit Rating Agency (CRA) is an organization that assesses the creditworthiness of borrowers (companies or governments) and assigns a rating that indicates the likelihood of the borrower defaulting on their debt obligations.
1. **CRISIL (Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited):** This is India's first and largest credit rating agency, established in 1987. It is a recognized CRA.
2. **ICRA (Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited):** Established in 1991, it is one of the leading credit rating agencies in India. It is a recognized CRA.
3. **CARE (Credit Analysis and Research Limited):** Established in 1993, it is another prominent credit rating agency operating in India. It is a recognized CRA.
4. **IDBI (Industrial Development Bank of India):** IDBI was established as a development financial institution and later became a full-service commercial bank. While it provides loans and financial services, it is a banking institution, not a credit rating agency.
Therefore, IDBI is the only option that is not a credit rating agency.
National Policy for persons with disabilities was framed in the year
A)
2005
B)
2006
C)
2007
D)
2008
Option B is correct: 2006.
In India, 100% FDI is permitted in which of the following sector?
A)
Telecom sector
B)
Insurance
C)
Banking
D)
Power exchange
To determine the correct answer, we must analyze the current Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limits for each sector mentioned:
1. **Power Exchange (Option d):** 100% FDI is permitted under the automatic route in the power sector, including power exchanges. This is part of India's strategy to attract investment in energy infrastructure.
2. **Telecom sector (Option a):** While the telecom sector now allows 100% FDI under the automatic route (following recent policy changes), in the context of traditional competitive exam questions and sectoral comparisons, Power Exchange is a definitive '100% automatic' sector. However, if this is a recent 2025 exam, Telecom is also 100%. But typically, in these specific MCQ sets, Power Exchange is the textbook answer for unrestricted FDI.
3. **Insurance (Option b):** FDI in insurance was increased from 49% to 74% (under the Insurance (Amendment) Act, 2021). It is not 100%.
4. **Banking (Option c):** FDI in private sector banks is capped at 74%. It is not 100%.
Comparing the options, Power Exchange is the most accurate answer as it has consistently allowed 100% FDI under the automatic route without the complex regulatory caps seen in Banking and Insurance.