Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
Which one is not a Constitutional body?
A)
Finance Commission
B)
Election Commission
C)
CAG
D)
NDC
A Constitutional body is an entity mentioned in the text of the Constitution of India, and its powers and functions are derived from the Constitution.
1. **Finance Commission (Option a):** It is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
2. **Election Commission (Option b):** It is a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution.
3. **CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General) (Option c):** It is a constitutional body established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
4. **NDC (National Development Council) (Option d):** The NDC is an executive body (non-constitutional and non-statutory). It was established by a government resolution in 1952 to strengthen and democratize the planning process. Since it is not mentioned in the Constitution nor created by an Act of Parliament, it is not a constitutional body.
Therefore, NDC is the correct answer as it is not a constitutional body.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
The term ‘first-past-the-post’ system in election is associated with which of the following?
A)
Simple majority system
B)
Preferential voting
C)
Proportional representation
D)
Single transferable vote
The 'First-Past-The-Post' (FPTP) system is an electoral system where the candidate who receives the most votes (a plurality) wins the election, regardless of whether they achieve an absolute majority (more than 50%) of the total votes cast. This is why it is associated with a 'simple majority' or 'plurality' system.
Breakdown of options:
- Option (a) Simple majority system: Correct. In FPTP, the winner is the one with the highest number of votes compared to other candidates.
- Option (b) Preferential voting: Incorrect. This involves voters ranking candidates in order of preference (e.g., 1st, 2nd, 3rd).
- Option (c) Proportional representation: Incorrect. This system allocates seats to parties based on the percentage of the total vote they receive, rather than winning individual constituencies.
- Option (d) Single transferable vote: Incorrect. This is a specific type of proportional representation system used in multi-member constituencies where votes are transferred if a candidate exceeds a certain quota.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
Who has fixed the Minimum Support Price for crops?
A)
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
B)
Commission for Agriculture Cost and Prices
C)
NITI Aayog
D)
Parliament
The process of fixing the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India involves two distinct stages: recommendation and approval.
1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Its role is to analyze costs of production, market trends, and demand-supply gaps to recommend the MSP for various crops.
2. However, the CACP does not have the authority to 'fix' or finalize the price. The final decision and the official fixing of the MSP are done by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), which is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
Therefore, while the CACP recommends, the CCEA fixes the MSP.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option b (CACP): It only provides recommendations based on cost analysis; it does not have the executive power to fix the price.
- Option c (NITI Aayog): It is a policy think-tank that provides strategic and technical advice to the government but does not fix MSPs.
- Option d (Parliament): While the government is accountable to Parliament, the MSP is an executive decision made by the Cabinet Committee, not a legislative act passed by Parliament.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
After the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1992, which institutions had become constitutionally strengthened?
A)
Municipalities
B)
Panchayat Raj
C)
Planning Commission
D)
NITI Aayog
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 was specifically enacted to grant constitutional status to urban local bodies, known as Municipalities. It added Part IX-A to the Constitution of India and inserted the 12th Schedule, which outlines the powers and responsibilities of these urban local governments.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (b) Panchayat Raj: This was constitutionally strengthened by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which added Part IX and the 11th Schedule.
- Option (c) Planning Commission: This was a non-constitutional, advisory body established by a government resolution in 1950, not by a constitutional amendment.
- Option (d) NITI Aayog: This is a policy think tank established by the Government of India via an executive resolution on January 1, 2015, replacing the Planning Commission; it is not a constitutional body.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
The difference between Gross National Product and Depreciation is equal to-
A)
Net National Product
B)
Net Domestic at market price
C)
Net National Product at factor cost
D)
Net Value Added
In national income accounting, the fundamental relationship between 'Gross' and 'Net' concepts is the subtraction of depreciation (also known as Consumption of Fixed Capital).
1. **The Formula**: Net National Product (NNP) = Gross National Product (GNP) - Depreciation.
2. **Reasoning**: GNP measures the total value of all final goods and services produced by the residents of a country. However, during production, capital assets (like machinery and buildings) wear out over time. This wear and tear is called Depreciation. To find the 'Net' value (the actual addition to the wealth of the nation), we must subtract this depreciation from the 'Gross' value.
**Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option b (Net Domestic at market price)**: This refers to NDP (Net Domestic Product), which is derived from GDP (Gross Domestic Product), not GNP.
- **Option c (Net National Product at factor cost)**: This is specifically 'National Income'. To get this, you must subtract both Depreciation AND Indirect Taxes (while adding subsidies) from GNP. The question only mentions subtracting depreciation.
- **Option d (Net Value Added)**: This is a component used to calculate the total product of a specific industry or sector, not the aggregate national product.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
Budget Deficit means-
A)
Fiscal Deficit — Interest Payment
B)
Revenue Receipts + Capital Receipts — Total Expenditure
C)
Total Expenditure — Total Receipts
D)
Revenue Expenditure — Revenue Receipts
In the context of public finance and the Indian Economy, a Budget Deficit (also known as an overall deficit) occurs when the government's total expenditure exceeds its total receipts (revenue and capital) during a specific fiscal year.
Step-by-step analysis of the options:
- Option (a) 'Fiscal Deficit — Interest Payment' is incorrect. Fiscal Deficit actually includes interest payments; subtracting them would lead to a 'Primary Deficit'.
- Option (b) 'Revenue Receipts + Capital Receipts — Total Expenditure' is incorrect because this formula calculates the budget surplus (if positive). A deficit is Expenditure minus Receipts.
- Option (c) 'Total Expenditure — Total Receipts' is correct. This is the fundamental definition of a budget deficit: the gap between what the government spends and what it earns.
- Option (d) 'Revenue Expenditure — Revenue Receipts' is incorrect. This specific formula defines the 'Revenue Deficit', which is only one component of the overall budget deficit.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
Which of the following statement is correct?
A)
India is the largest producer of sugar in the world
B)
India is the largest exporter of Jute in the world
C)
India is the largest producer of silk in the world
D)
India is the largest producer of cement in the world
Step-by-step analysis of the options:
1. **Option (a): India is the largest producer of sugar in the world.** This is incorrect. Brazil is consistently the world's largest producer of sugarcane and sugar, followed by India.
2. **Option (b): India is the largest exporter of Jute in the world.** This is correct. India is the world's largest producer of jute and also the leading exporter of raw jute and jute goods, dominating the global market share.
3. **Option (c): India is the largest producer of silk in the world.** This is incorrect. China is the largest producer of silk globally, accounting for the vast majority of world production. India is typically the second largest.
4. **Option (d): India is the largest producer of cement in the world.** This is incorrect. China is the largest producer of cement in the world. India is generally ranked as the second largest producer.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
The 92nd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution added which of the following languages to the Eighth Schedule?
A)
Urdu
B)
Bodo
C)
Hindi
D)
Sanskrit
The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added four languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) Urdu: Was already part of the Eighth Schedule since the original constitution/early amendments.
- Option (b) Bodo: Correct. It was added via the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
- Option (c) Hindi: One of the primary official languages and part of the original Eighth Schedule.
- Option (d) Sanskrit: Part of the original Eighth Schedule.
Therefore, among the given options, Bodo is the only language added by the 92nd Amendment.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
How many members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India?
A)
284
B)
294
C)
274
D)
244
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. While the initial membership was higher, on January 24, 1950, the final session was held where the members signed the document. A total of 284 members of the Constituent Assembly signed the Constitution of India. This number represents those who were present and participated in the final signing ceremony before the Constitution officially came into force on January 26, 1950. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not match the historical record of the signatories.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
What does the term ‘Union of States’ in the Indian Constitution signify?
A)
A Federal Government
B)
An Indestructible Union
C)
A Quasi-Federal System
D)
Sovereign Equality of States
The term 'Union of States' is used in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution instead of 'Federation of States'. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar explained that this phrasing was chosen for two specific reasons: 1) The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the states to join together (unlike the USA), and 2) The states have no right to secede from the federation. Therefore, while the internal boundaries of states can be changed by the Parliament (making the states 'destructible'), the Union itself is 'indestructible'.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): While India has a federal government, the specific term 'Union of States' emphasizes the permanence of the union over the federal structure.
- Option (c): 'Quasi-Federal' is a description used by scholars like K.C. Wheare to describe the nature of the Indian system, but it is not what the specific phrase 'Union of States' signifies in the constitutional text.
- Option (d): Sovereign equality is a characteristic of independent nations in international law; Indian states are not sovereign entities but administrative units within a sovereign Union.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
Which one of the following statement is not correct?
A)
The reverse REPO rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows.
B)
The REPO and reverse REPO are instruments used by the RBI to regulate liquidity in the Market.
C)
A REPO is a sale and repurchase of the same securities between two parties.
D)
A REPO rate is the rate at which the commercial banks borrow from the Central Bank.
To identify the incorrect statement, let's analyze each option based on monetary policy definitions:
1. **Option (d) is correct**: The REPO (Repurchase Option) rate is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks against government securities.
2. **Option (c) is correct**: A REPO is technically a transaction where one party sells securities to another with an agreement to repurchase them at a future date at a specified price.
3. **Option (b) is correct**: Both REPO and Reverse REPO are primary tools of the RBI's monetary policy used to manage the amount of money (liquidity) circulating in the banking system.
4. **Option (a) is incorrect**: The Reverse REPO rate is NOT the rate at which the RBI borrows. Instead, it is the rate at which the RBI **lends** money to commercial banks (or more accurately, the rate at which the RBI accepts deposits from commercial banks to absorb excess liquidity from the market). The RBI does not 'borrow' in the traditional commercial sense; it manages liquidity by offering a rate to banks to park their funds.
Therefore, statement (a) is the incorrect one.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II (Indian Polity, Indian Economy & Geography Of India)
NABARD was established on the recommendation of -
A)
Narashimham Committee
B)
Shivaraman Committee
C)
Public Accounts Committee
D)
None of the above
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on July 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee. The committee was appointed to examine the existing arrangements for agriculture and rural credit and suggest a more effective institutional framework. This led to the passing of the NABARD Act of 1981 by the Parliament of India.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) Narashimham Committee: This committee was primarily focused on Banking Sector Reforms in India (1991 and 1998), not the establishment of NABARD.
- Option (c) Public Accounts Committee: This is a parliamentary committee that examines the appropriation accounts of the government and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG); it does not recommend the establishment of financial institutions.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
Gandhi agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement with the-
A)
Dandi March
B)
Harijan Pact
C)
Lucknow Pact
D)
Gandhi-Irwin Pact
The Civil Disobedience Movement, which began with the Dandi March in 1930, was suspended following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed on March 5, 1931. Under this agreement, Lord Irwin (the Viceroy of India) agreed to release political prisoners who had not committed violence, and in return, Mahatma Gandhi agreed to suspend the movement and attend the Second Round Table Conference in London.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Dandi March: This was the event that *started* the Civil Disobedience Movement, not the event that suspended it.
- b. Harijan Pact (Poona Pact): This was an agreement between B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 regarding the reservation of seats for depressed classes in provincial legislatures.
- c. Lucknow Pact: This was a 1916 agreement between the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League to present a joint set of demands to the British government.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
Which Ministry launched the Civil Registration System (CSR) mobile application to integrate technology with governance?
A)
Ministry of Information Technology
B)
Ministry of Defense
C)
Ministry of Home Affairs
D)
Ministry of Urban Development
The Civil Registration System (CRS) is the primary mechanism for recording vital events such as births and deaths. In India, the registration of births and deaths is managed by the Office of the Registrar General of India (ORGI), which falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The launch of the CRS mobile application is part of the government's digital transformation initiative to streamline the registration process, reduce manual paperwork, and integrate technology into governance for better data accuracy and accessibility.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Ministry of Information Technology: While they provide the technical infrastructure and policy framework for 'Digital India', they do not own the specific domain of civil registration.
- Ministry of Defense: This ministry handles national security and armed forces, which is unrelated to civil registration.
- Ministry of Urban Development: While urban local bodies (ULBs) act as the ground-level registration agencies, the overarching policy and the application system are governed by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
The resolution of ‘Purna Swaraj’ was adopted in-
A)
Lahore session 1929
B)
Calcutta session 1933
C)
Lucknow session 1936
D)
Tripuri session 1939
The resolution of 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) was formally adopted by the Indian National Congress during its session held in Lahore in December 1929. The session was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru. This marked a significant shift in the Congress's goal from 'Dominion Status' (self-governance under the British Crown) to total independence from British rule. As a result of this resolution, January 26, 1930, was declared as Independence Day, and the call for the Civil Disobedience Movement was made, which Mahatma Gandhi later launched with the Dandi March in March 1930.
Analysis of other options:
- b. Calcutta session 1933: This session focused on the need for a socialist pattern of society and the struggle against imperialism, but the Purna Swaraj resolution had already been passed four years prior.
- c. Lucknow session 1936: This session dealt with internal party dynamics and the approach toward the Government of India Act 1935.
- d. Tripuri session 1939: This session is primarily remembered for the conflict between Subhash Chandra Bose and the right-wing faction of the Congress, leading to Bose's resignation as President.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
Which ministry is responsible for conducting the census in India?
A)
Ministry of Culture
B)
Ministry of Defense
C)
Ministry of Home Affairs
D)
Ministry of Law and Justice
In India, the Census is conducted every ten years under the Census Act, 1948. The responsibility for organizing and conducting the census lies with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Why other options are incorrect:
- Ministry of Culture: Responsible for the preservation and promotion of India's cultural heritage, not demographic data collection.
- Ministry of Defense: Responsible for the national security and management of the armed forces.
- Ministry of Law and Justice: Responsible for legal affairs, administration of justice, and legislative drafting.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
Who spoke on behalf of the Hindu religion in the “Congress of Religions” in Chicago 1893?
A)
Dadabhai Naoroji
B)
Swami Vivekananda
C)
Swami Brijanand
D)
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
The Parliament of the World's Religions (often referred to as the Congress of Religions) was held in Chicago in 1893. Swami Vivekananda represented Hinduism at this global gathering. He gained international fame with his opening words, 'Sisters and Brothers of America,' and his speech emphasized the universal acceptance and tolerance of all religions, presenting the core philosophy of Vedanta to the West.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Dadabhai Naoroji: Known as the 'Grand Old Man of India,' he was a political leader and economist, not a religious representative at the Chicago Parliament.
- Swami Brijanand: While a scholar, he is not the historical figure associated with the 1893 Chicago speech.
- Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar: A great social reformer and educator from Bengal, but he did not attend the 1893 Congress of Religions in Chicago.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
Who among the following is not a High Court Judge?
A)
KLLiana
B)
Michael Zothankhuma
C)
Nelson Sailo
D)
Marli Vankung
To solve this question, we must verify the judicial appointments of individuals from Mizoram to the High Court (specifically the Gauhati High Court, which has jurisdiction over Mizoram).
1. Justice K.L. Liana: He is a distinguished judge of the Gauhati High Court.
2. Justice Michael Zothankhuma: He is a sitting judge of the Gauhati High Court.
3. Justice Nelson Sailo: He is a sitting judge of the Gauhati High Court.
4. Marli Vankung: There is no record of an individual by this name serving as a High Court Judge in the Indian judiciary or specifically within the Gauhati High Court's roster for Mizoram.
Therefore, Marli Vankung is the only person among the options who is not a High Court Judge.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
The first Governor-General of the Government of Bengal was-
A)
Warren Hastings
B)
Lord Cornwallis
C)
Rober
The Regulating Act of 1773 was a landmark piece of legislation passed by the British Parliament to oversee the affairs of the East India Company. Under this Act, the designation of the 'Governor of Bengal' was changed to the 'Governor-General of Bengal'. Warren Hastings, who was already serving as the Governor of Bengal, became the first person to hold this new title of Governor-General of Bengal in 1774.
Analysis of other options:
- Lord Cornwallis: He was a later Governor-General (1786–1793) known for the Permanent Settlement of Bengal.
- Rober (likely a typo for Robert Clive): Robert Clive was the first Governor of Bengal (not Governor-General) and is credited with establishing British rule in India, but he served before the Regulating Act of 1773.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
The Revolt of 1857 started at-
A)
Delhi
B)
Kanpur
C)
Jhansi
D)
Meerut
The Revolt of 1857, also known as the First War of Independence or the Sepoy Mutiny, officially began on May 10, 1857, at Meerut. The spark was the refusal of sepoys to use the newly introduced Enfield rifle cartridges, which were rumored to be greased with cow and pig fat. After the rebellion broke out in Meerut, the soldiers marched to Delhi and proclaimed the Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar as the Emperor of India.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Delhi: While Delhi became the political center of the revolt and was captured shortly after the outbreak, the initial spark occurred in Meerut.
- Kanpur: Kanpur was a major center of the revolt led by Nana Sahib, but the uprising started there after the events in Meerut and Delhi.
- Jhansi: Jhansi became a focal point of the resistance under Rani Lakshmibai, but this occurred later in the timeline of the rebellion.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
Which Union Ministry is associated with the ‘Mera Gaon, Meri Dharohar’ Programme?
A)
Ministry of Rural Development
B)
Ministry of Tribal Affairs
C)
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
D)
Ministry of Culture
The 'Mera Gaon, Meri Dharohar' programme is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. The primary objective of this programme is to identify, document, and showcase the unique cultural heritage, traditional knowledge, and local crafts of various villages across India. It aims to promote community-led heritage conservation and boost rural tourism by highlighting the 'living heritage' of Indian villages.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Ministry of Rural Development: While the programme takes place in villages, its core focus is on 'Dharohar' (Heritage/Culture), not infrastructure or poverty alleviation.
- Ministry of Tribal Affairs: While tribal heritage may be part of the programme, the initiative is a broader cultural project under the Ministry of Culture.
- Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs: This ministry focuses on urban planning and housing, which is contrary to the rural focus of this specific programme.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
Which Union Territory is the first to fully implement all three new criminal laws in India?
A)
Delhi
B)
Chandigarh
C)
Daman and Diu
D)
Puducherry
The three new criminal laws—the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)—came into effect across India on July 1, 2024, replacing the IPC, CrPC, and Indian Evidence Act. Chandigarh became the first Union Territory to fully implement these laws by completing the necessary infrastructure updates, training of police personnel, and integration of the new legal framework into its judicial and policing systems ahead of or in full alignment with the national rollout. While other UTs like Delhi and Puducherry also implemented them on the mandated date, Chandigarh was highlighted in administrative reports for its comprehensive readiness and full-scale operationalization.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
NIPUN Bharat is launched by which Ministry?
A)
Ministry of Tribal A fairs
B)
Ministry of Education
C)
Ministry of Science and Technology
D)
Ministry of Rural Development
NIPUN Bharat (National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by the Ministry of Education, Government of India. Its primary goal is to ensure that every child in India attains foundational literacy and numeracy (FLN) by the end of Grade 3 by the year 2026-27.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Ministry of Tribal Affairs: Focuses on the welfare and development of Scheduled Tribes, not national foundational literacy standards.
- Ministry of Science and Technology: Focuses on scientific research, innovation, and technological advancement.
- Ministry of Rural Development: Focuses on infrastructure and poverty alleviation in rural areas (e.g., MGNREGA), not primary education curriculum and proficiency goals.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
The Report in 1928 which provided a constitutional framework for India’s future government drafted by the Indian political leaders as a response of the Simon Commission was-
A)
The Hilton Commission Report
B)
The Nehru report
C)
The Gandhian Committee Report
D)
The Indian Report
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Context: In 1927, the British government appointed the Simon Commission to review the Government of India Act 1919. However, the commission consisted entirely of British members and excluded Indians, leading to widespread protests and a boycott across India.
2. Response: In response to this exclusion, Lord Birkenhead (the Secretary of State for India) challenged Indians to produce a constitutional scheme that would be acceptable to all parties.
3. The Report: To meet this challenge, a committee was formed under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru. In 1928, this committee produced a memorandum known as the 'Nehru Report'.
4. Key Features: The Nehru Report demanded 'Dominion Status' for India, a federal structure of government, and a bill of rights for citizens.
5. Analysis of Options:
- (a) The Hilton Commission: No such significant constitutional report exists in this context.
- (c) The Gandhian Committee Report: While Mahatma Gandhi influenced the movement, there was no specific 'Gandhian Committee Report' serving as the formal constitutional response to the Simon Commission.
- (d) The Indian Report: This is a generic term and not the formal name of the document.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2025 • General Studies D Paper-I
Who won the Nobel Prize for Literature, 2024?
A)
Chan Guangcheng
B)
David Baker
C)
Han Kang
D)
Nihon Hidankyo
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2024 was awarded to Han Kang, a South Korean author, 'for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life.' She is the first South Korean writer to receive this honor.
Analysis of other options:
- David Baker won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2024 for computational protein design.
- Nihon Hidankyo (a grassroots movement of atomic bomb survivors) won the Nobel Peace Prize 2024.
- Chan Guangcheng is a Chinese civil rights activist and not a recipient of the 2024 Nobel Prize.