← Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions — 2026
What does the abbreviation ‘stat’ refer to?
A)
Immediately
B)
As needed
C)
Dispensed
D)
Suddenly
In prescription and pharmacy practice, the abbreviation ‘stat’ is used to indicate that a medicine should be given or acted upon immediately. It comes from the Latin ‘statim,’ meaning instantly. Option (b) ‘As needed’ refers to ‘PRN,’ option (c) ‘Dispensed’ is not the meaning of stat, and option (d) ‘Suddenly’ is not the standard pharmacy usage.
Which antimalarial drug is no longer recommended for use in North East India by National Vector Borne Disease Control Program (NVBDCP), due to resistance?
A)
Artemether & Lumefantrine combination
B)
Artesunate & sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination
C)
Artesunate & mefloquine combination
D)
Artesunate & Amodiaquine
In North East India, *P. falciparum* resistance to mefloquine has been documented, so the NVBDCP no longer recommends the artesunate + mefloquine combination there. Artemether + lumefantrine is used in many settings, and artesunate + sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine was the older first-line ACT in some areas, but the specific combination withdrawn for North East India due to resistance is artesunate + mefloquine.
The Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS) classifies drugs on the basis of:
A)
Molecular weight and pKa
B)
Partition coefficient and stability
C)
Dose number and dissolution rate
D)
Solubility and permeability
The Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS) classifies drugs based on two key properties: their aqueous solubility and intestinal permeability. Drugs are grouped into four classes according to whether they are highly/poorly soluble and highly/poorly permeable. The other options refer to different physicochemical properties but are not the basis of BCS classification.
The most important reason for giving loading dose of a drug is:
A)
To achieve steady state plasma concentration in a short time
B)
To reduce the complications
C)
When the drugs have long plasma half life
D)
When the drug to be given is acidic
A loading dose is given when it is necessary to quickly reach the desired therapeutic plasma concentration, instead of waiting for several half-lives with repeated maintenance doses. This is especially useful for drugs with a long half-life. Option (c) is a common indication for using a loading dose, but the main reason is option (a): rapid attainment of steady-state/therapeutic concentration. The other options are not the primary purpose of a loading dose.
Which of the following factors can reduce the oral bioavailability of a drug?
A)
First-pass metabolism in the liver.
B)
Giving the drug as an aqueous solution.
C)
Reduction in size of the drug.
D)
Rapid gastric emptying.
Oral bioavailability is the fraction of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged. First-pass metabolism in the liver can significantly reduce this amount because the drug is metabolized before it enters the bloodstream. Giving the drug as an aqueous solution generally improves absorption, reduction in particle size usually increases dissolution and absorption, and rapid gastric emptying often helps the drug reach the small intestine faster, where absorption is usually better.
During a counselling session with a patient who is recently diagnosed as a case of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) under a standard 6-month regimen, what should the pharmacist emphasize to ensure treatment success and prevent drug resistance?
A)
The importance of incorporating daily vitamin supplements and good nutrition to accelerate recovery
B)
Skip doses on days when side effects like nausea occur in order to improve future compliance to the treatment.
C)
Completing the full course of all prescribed medications without missing a single dose, even if symptoms resolve early
D)
Engaging in high-intensity exercise to clear lung secretions
In pulmonary tuberculosis, strict adherence to the full anti-TB regimen is essential. Symptoms often improve before the infection is fully eradicated, so stopping early or missing doses can lead to treatment failure and drug resistance. Option (c) is correct because it emphasizes completing the entire prescribed course. Option (a) may support general health but does not ensure cure or prevent resistance. Option (b) is wrong because skipping doses promotes resistance. Option (d) is not a standard or sufficient measure for TB treatment.
What is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock?
A)
Ephedrine
B)
Dopamine
C)
Adrenaline
D)
Chlorpheniramine
Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. The drug of choice is adrenaline (epinephrine) because it rapidly reverses bronchospasm, vasodilation, and airway edema, and it supports blood pressure. Ephedrine is not the standard first-line treatment, dopamine is mainly used as a vasopressor in other shock states, and chlorpheniramine is only an antihistamine adjunct, not the life-saving drug of choice.
What is the full form of OTC drugs?
A)
Over the credit
B)
Over the counter
C)
Over the compliance
D)
Over the context
OTC stands for "Over the counter." These are medicines that can be bought without a doctor's prescription. The other options are not correct expansions of OTC.
Which organ is responsible for majority of drug excretion?
A)
Lungs
B)
Liver
C)
Large Intestine
D)
Kidney
The kidney is the main organ responsible for excretion of most drugs and their metabolites, mainly through urine. The liver also participates in drug elimination by metabolism and biliary excretion, but the majority of drug excretion occurs via the kidneys. Lungs excrete only certain volatile substances, and the large intestine is not the primary route for drug excretion.
Which of the following antihypertensive work by inhibiting the angiotensin converting enzyme?
A)
Telmisartan
B)
Captopril
C)
Nifedipine
D)
Metoprolol
ACE inhibitors inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing formation of angiotensin II and lowering blood pressure. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker, and Metoprolol is a beta-blocker.
What is the antidote for Methanol poisoning?
A)
Flumazenil
B)
Fomepizole
C)
Flunarizine
D)
Fluconazole
Methanol is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase into toxic formic acid. Fomepizole is the specific antidote because it inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents this toxic metabolism. Flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, flunarizine is an antimigraine/calcium channel blocker, and fluconazole is an antifungal drug.
What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?
A)
They inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase
B)
They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
C)
They Cause leakage from bacterial cell membrane
D)
They inhibit protein synthesis
Fluoroquinolones act by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV, which are essential for DNA replication and transcription. This blocks bacterial DNA synthesis and leads to bactericidal action. Option (b) is the mechanism of beta-lactam drugs, (c) describes membrane-disrupting agents, and (d) is the mechanism of drugs like tetracyclines, macrolides, aminoglycosides, and chloramphenicol.
Activated charcoal exerts its mechanism of action via the principle of:
A)
Absorption
B)
Adsorption
C)
Diffusion
D)
Receptor activation
Activated charcoal works by **adsorption**—it binds toxic substances onto its large surface area in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption into the body. It does not act by absorption (which means uptake into a substance), diffusion, or receptor activation.
The main advantage of giving a drug via intravenous (I.V.) route is that:
A)
It is convenient for self-administration.
B)
It provides 100% bioavailability.
C)
It is the best route for depot preparations.
D)
It causes less chance of developing thrombophlebitis.
Intravenous (I.V.) administration delivers the drug directly into the systemic circulation, so the entire dose is immediately available to the body. Hence, its bioavailability is 100%. Option (a) is incorrect because I.V. drugs are generally not convenient for self-administration. Option (c) is incorrect because depot preparations are usually given by intramuscular or subcutaneous routes, not I.V. Option (d) is incorrect because I.V. administration can actually cause thrombophlebitis rather than reduce its chance.
The drug which can be used to numb pain sensation during minor operation like wound stitching is:
A)
Lignocaine
B)
Bupivacaine
C)
Oxetacaine
D)
Adrenaline
Lignocaine (lidocaine) is a local anaesthetic commonly used to numb a small area of skin or tissue during minor procedures such as wound stitching. Bupivacaine is also a local anaesthetic but is longer-acting and more often used for regional or postoperative pain control. Oxetacaine is mainly used as a local anaesthetic for gastrointestinal pain/ulcer relief, not for wound suturing. Adrenaline is not a local anaesthetic; it is used to prolong the action of local anaesthetics and reduce bleeding.
In Myasthenia Gravis, the suitable drug to reverse the CNS manifestations is:
A)
Phenylephrine
B)
Neostigmine
C)
Physostigmine
D)
Noradrenaline
Myasthenia gravis is treated symptomatically with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors to increase acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Among the options, physostigmine is the only reversible anticholinesterase that crosses the blood-brain barrier, so it can reverse CNS effects. Neostigmine also inhibits acetylcholinesterase but does not significantly enter the CNS. Phenylephrine and noradrenaline are adrenergic drugs and are not used to reverse myasthenic manifestations.
Which of the following is not a phase of New Drug Development?
A)
Post-Marketing surveillance
B)
Synthesis/Isolation of the compound
C)
Preclinical studies
D)
Drug repurposing studies
New drug development typically includes discovery of a candidate compound, synthesis/isolation of the compound, preclinical studies, clinical trials, and post-marketing surveillance. Drug repurposing studies are not a standard phase of new drug development; they involve finding new therapeutic uses for already existing drugs.
What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity?
A)
Dopamine
B)
Amiloride
C)
Digibind
D)
Digitalis
Digoxin toxicity is treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments called Digibind (also known as DigiFab). These bind free digoxin in the blood and help remove it from the body. Dopamine is a vasopressor, Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and Digitalis is the drug class digoxin belongs to, not an antidote.
What cytochrome P450 isozyme is most abundantly expressed in the human liver and intestines?
A)
CYP1A1
B)
CYP3A4
C)
CYP2C9
D)
CYP2D6
CYP3A4 is the most abundantly expressed cytochrome P450 isozyme in the human liver and is also highly expressed in the intestinal mucosa. It plays a major role in the metabolism of many drugs. CYP2C9 and CYP2D6 are important drug-metabolizing enzymes but are less abundant, while CYP1A1 is not the major liver isozyme.
Pharmacy computer systems used in community pharmacies for maintaining patient and dispensing information are referred to as:
A)
Medication prescription system
B)
Prescription filling system
C)
Prescription audit system
D)
Medication record system
Pharmacy computer systems in community pharmacies are used to store and maintain patient details, medication history, and dispensing information. This is best described as a medication record system. The other options do not accurately cover the broader function of maintaining both patient and dispensing records: prescription filling system is mainly for processing prescriptions, prescription audit system is for checking/monitoring prescriptions, and medication prescription system is not the standard term for this function.
Which of the following insulin analogue has the longest mechanism of action?
A)
Insulin glargine
B)
Insulin lispro
C)
Insulin glulisine
D)
Insulin aspart
Insulin analogues differ by duration of action. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin analogue with the longest action among the given options. Insulin lispro, insulin glulisine, and insulin aspart are all rapid-acting insulin analogues, so their duration of action is much shorter than glargine.
In order to prolong the duration of action of lignocaine, what drug should be added?
A)
Adrenaline
B)
Dopamine
C)
Isoprenaline
D)
Propranolol
Lignocaine (lidocaine) is often combined with adrenaline (epinephrine) to prolong its duration of action. Adrenaline causes local vasoconstriction, which reduces blood flow at the injection site, slows systemic absorption of lignocaine, and thereby prolongs its local effect. Dopamine, isoprenaline, and propranolol are not used for this purpose.
Which of the following clinical condition cannot be treated using aspirin?
A)
Prevention of clot formation on atherosclerotic plaque
B)
Inflammation after soft tissue injury
C)
Iron deficiency anaemia
D)
Fever
Aspirin is used as an antiplatelet drug to prevent clot formation on atherosclerotic plaque, and it also has analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory actions, so it can be used in inflammation after soft tissue injury and fever. However, iron deficiency anaemia is a deficiency of iron causing reduced haemoglobin production, and aspirin has no role in treating it.
Which of the following non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug has a dose dependent variable therapeutic use?
A)
Diclofenac
B)
Ibuprofen
C)
Aspirin
D)
Celecoxib
Aspirin is the NSAID known for dose-dependent variable therapeutic uses. At low doses, it is used as an antiplatelet agent; at higher doses, it acts as an analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory drug. Diclofenac, ibuprofen, and celecoxib do not have such distinctly dose-dependent different therapeutic uses.
Which of the following is a macrolide antibiotic?
A)
Ceftriaxone
B)
Ciprofloxacin
C)
Azithromycin
D)
Minocycline
Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic. Macrolides include erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin. Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, and minocycline is a tetracycline.