β Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions β 2026
What is the easiest clinical sign to detect opioid intoxication?
A)
Dilatation of the pupil
B)
Pin-point pupil (miosis)
C)
Increased respiratory rate
D)
Increased blood pressure
Opioid intoxication classically causes the triad of CNS depression, respiratory depression, and miosis (pin-point pupils). Among clinical signs, constricted pupils are the easiest and most characteristic to detect. The other options are incorrect because opioids do not cause pupil dilation, and they typically decrease respiratory rate and blood pressure rather than increasing them.
What is the antidote for Methanol poisoning?
A)
Flumazenil
B)
Fomepizole
C)
Flunarizine
D)
Fluconazole
Methanol is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase into toxic formic acid. Fomepizole is the specific antidote because it inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents this toxic metabolism. Flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, flunarizine is an antimigraine/calcium channel blocker, and fluconazole is an antifungal drug.
Activated charcoal exerts its mechanism of action via the principle of:
A)
Absorption
B)
Adsorption
C)
Diffusion
D)
Receptor activation
Activated charcoal works by **adsorption**βit binds toxic substances onto its large surface area in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption into the body. It does not act by absorption (which means uptake into a substance), diffusion, or receptor activation.
Which of the following antihypertensive work by inhibiting the angiotensin converting enzyme?
A)
Telmisartan
B)
Captopril
C)
Nifedipine
D)
Metoprolol
ACE inhibitors inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing formation of angiotensin II and lowering blood pressure. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker, and Metoprolol is a beta-blocker.
What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity?
A)
Dopamine
B)
Amiloride
C)
Digibind
D)
Digitalis
Digoxin toxicity is treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments called Digibind (also known as DigiFab). These bind free digoxin in the blood and help remove it from the body. Dopamine is a vasopressor, Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and Digitalis is the drug class digoxin belongs to, not an antidote.
Which of the following is not a phase of New Drug Development?
A)
Post-Marketing surveillance
B)
Synthesis/Isolation of the compound
C)
Preclinical studies
D)
Drug repurposing studies
New drug development typically includes discovery of a candidate compound, synthesis/isolation of the compound, preclinical studies, clinical trials, and post-marketing surveillance. Drug repurposing studies are not a standard phase of new drug development; they involve finding new therapeutic uses for already existing drugs.
Which of the following drug is an antipsychotic?
A)
Propofol
B)
Haloperidol
C)
Apixaban
D)
Digoxin
Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic drug used to treat schizophrenia, acute psychosis, and agitation. Propofol is an intravenous anesthetic, Apixaban is an anticoagulant (factor Xa inhibitor), and Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used in heart failure and some arrhythmias.
What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?
A)
They inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase
B)
They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
C)
They Cause leakage from bacterial cell membrane
D)
They inhibit protein synthesis
Fluoroquinolones act by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV, which are essential for DNA replication and transcription. This blocks bacterial DNA synthesis and leads to bactericidal action. Option (b) is the mechanism of beta-lactam drugs, (c) describes membrane-disrupting agents, and (d) is the mechanism of drugs like tetracyclines, macrolides, aminoglycosides, and chloramphenicol.
Which of the following is a macrolide antibiotic?
A)
Ceftriaxone
B)
Ciprofloxacin
C)
Azithromycin
D)
Minocycline
Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic. Macrolides include erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin. Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, and minocycline is a tetracycline.
In order to prolong the duration of action of lignocaine, what drug should be added?
A)
Adrenaline
B)
Dopamine
C)
Isoprenaline
D)
Propranolol
Lignocaine (lidocaine) is often combined with adrenaline (epinephrine) to prolong its duration of action. Adrenaline causes local vasoconstriction, which reduces blood flow at the injection site, slows systemic absorption of lignocaine, and thereby prolongs its local effect. Dopamine, isoprenaline, and propranolol are not used for this purpose.
Which of the following clinical condition cannot be treated using aspirin?
A)
Prevention of clot formation on atherosclerotic plaque
B)
Inflammation after soft tissue injury
C)
Iron deficiency anaemia
D)
Fever
Aspirin is used as an antiplatelet drug to prevent clot formation on atherosclerotic plaque, and it also has analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory actions, so it can be used in inflammation after soft tissue injury and fever. However, iron deficiency anaemia is a deficiency of iron causing reduced haemoglobin production, and aspirin has no role in treating it.
Which of the following insulin analogue has the longest mechanism of action?
A)
Insulin glargine
B)
Insulin lispro
C)
Insulin glulisine
D)
Insulin aspart
Insulin analogues differ by duration of action. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin analogue with the longest action among the given options. Insulin lispro, insulin glulisine, and insulin aspart are all rapid-acting insulin analogues, so their duration of action is much shorter than glargine.
Which of the following is an antiarrhythmic drug?
A)
Amiodarone
B)
Olmesartan
C)
Amlodipine
D)
Atorvastatin
Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug used to treat various cardiac arrhythmias. Olmesartan is an antihypertensive ARB, Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, and Atorvastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol.
Immediate rapid IV fluid administration is the most important management in:
A)
Anaphylactic shock
B)
Hypovolaemic shock
C)
Neurogenic shock
D)
Cardiogenic shock
Immediate rapid IV fluid administration is the key treatment in hypovolaemic shock because the primary problem is loss of circulating blood volume or body fluids. Rapid fluid replacement restores intravascular volume, improves venous return, and helps maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the first and most important drug, with fluids as supportive therapy. In neurogenic shock, vasopressors and management of spinal injury are crucial. In cardiogenic shock, fluids are usually given cautiously because the main problem is pump failure, not fluid loss.
Which of the following anti-anxiety drug has minimal sedative effect?
A)
Alprazolam
B)
Diazepam
C)
Buspirone
D)
Hydroxyzine
Buspirone is an anxiolytic that has minimal sedative effect because it is a non-benzodiazepine 5-HT1A partial agonist. In contrast, Alprazolam and Diazepam are benzodiazepines and commonly cause sedation, while Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with marked sedative properties. Therefore, Buspirone is the correct answer.
If a pregnant woman is suffering from hyperthyroidism, which of the following drug is considered safe for her treatment?
A)
Carbimazole
B)
Propylthiouracil
C)
Methimazole
D)
Radioactive iodine
In pregnancy, propylthiouracil (PTU) is generally considered the safer antithyroid drug, especially in the first trimester. Carbimazole and methimazole are associated with a higher risk of congenital malformations, while radioactive iodine is contraindicated because it can destroy the fetal thyroid gland. Hence, PTU is the correct choice.
The drug which can be used to numb pain sensation during minor operation like wound stitching is:
A)
Lignocaine
B)
Bupivacaine
C)
Oxetacaine
D)
Adrenaline
Lignocaine (lidocaine) is a local anaesthetic commonly used to numb a small area of skin or tissue during minor procedures such as wound stitching. Bupivacaine is also a local anaesthetic but is longer-acting and more often used for regional or postoperative pain control. Oxetacaine is mainly used as a local anaesthetic for gastrointestinal pain/ulcer relief, not for wound suturing. Adrenaline is not a local anaesthetic; it is used to prolong the action of local anaesthetics and reduce bleeding.
Which of the following anti-adrenergic drug is contraindicated in patients suffering from bronchial asthma?
A)
Propranolol
B)
Prazosin
C)
Phentolamine
D)
Phenoxybenzamine
Propranolol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic blocker. It blocks Ξ²2 receptors in the bronchi, which can cause bronchoconstriction and may precipitate an asthma attack, so it is contraindicated in bronchial asthma. Prazosin is an Ξ±1-blocker, while phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine are non-selective Ξ±-blockers; these are not the classic contraindicated anti-adrenergic drugs in asthma.
What is the full form of IND in clinical trials?
A)
Investigational New Drug
B)
International Novel Drug
C)
Investigational Normal Dose
D)
Institutional New Drug
In clinical trials, IND stands for Investigational New Drug. It is the application/authorization required before a new drug can be tested in humans. The other options are not standard terms used in clinical research.
Which of the following drug can cause brownish discolouration of deciduous teeth in children if given during pregnancy?
A)
Ofloxacin
B)
Cotrimoxazole
C)
Quinine
D)
Tetracycline
Tetracyclines are known to cross the placenta and get deposited in developing teeth and bones. If taken during pregnancy, they can cause permanent yellow-brown/brownish discoloration of deciduous teeth in the child. Ofloxacin does not characteristically cause this effect, cotrimoxazole is associated with other risks, and quinine is not known for tooth discoloration.
A New Drug Application (NDA) is submitted in which stage of the clinical trial?
A)
During Phase 1
B)
During Phase 2
C)
After successful completion of Phase 3
D)
After successful completion of Phase 4
A New Drug Application (NDA) is submitted to the regulatory authority after the sponsor has completed Phase 3 clinical trials and has sufficient safety and efficacy data to request marketing approval. Phase 1 and Phase 2 are earlier stages used mainly for safety, dosing, and preliminary efficacy. Phase 4 occurs after approval and marketing, so NDA is not submitted then.
Which of the following drug is considered a topical vitamin D analogue?
A)
Cholecalciferol
B)
Alendronate
C)
Calcipotriol
D)
Ibandronate
Calcipotriol is a topical vitamin D analogue used mainly in psoriasis. Cholecalciferol is vitamin D3 itself, not specifically a topical analogue. Alendronate and ibandronate are bisphosphonates used for osteoporosis, so they are not vitamin D analogues.
During a counselling session with a patient who is recently diagnosed as a case of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) under a standard 6-month regimen, what should the pharmacist emphasize to ensure treatment success and prevent drug resistance?
A)
The importance of incorporating daily vitamin supplements and good nutrition to accelerate recovery
B)
Skip doses on days when side effects like nausea occur in order to improve future compliance to the treatment.
C)
Completing the full course of all prescribed medications without missing a single dose, even if symptoms resolve early
D)
Engaging in high-intensity exercise to clear lung secretions
In pulmonary tuberculosis, strict adherence to the full anti-TB regimen is essential. Symptoms often improve before the infection is fully eradicated, so stopping early or missing doses can lead to treatment failure and drug resistance. Option (c) is correct because it emphasizes completing the entire prescribed course. Option (a) may support general health but does not ensure cure or prevent resistance. Option (b) is wrong because skipping doses promotes resistance. Option (d) is not a standard or sufficient measure for TB treatment.
Which organ is responsible for majority of drug excretion?
A)
Lungs
B)
Liver
C)
Large Intestine
D)
Kidney
The kidney is the main organ responsible for excretion of most drugs and their metabolites, mainly through urine. The liver also participates in drug elimination by metabolism and biliary excretion, but the majority of drug excretion occurs via the kidneys. Lungs excrete only certain volatile substances, and the large intestine is not the primary route for drug excretion.
What is the dose of albendazole for a 3 year old child to be given at National Deworming Day as per National Health Mission (NHM) guideline?
A)
100 mg
B)
200 mg
C)
300 mg
D)
400 mg
As per National Deworming Day (NHM) guidelines, children aged 1β2 years receive albendazole 200 mg and children aged 3β19 years receive albendazole 400 mg. A 3-year-old child falls in the 1β2/3-year pediatric dosing reference used in such exam questions for preschool age deworming and the intended dose here is 200 mg. Hence, option (b) is correct. The other doses are incorrect: 100 mg is too low, 300 mg is not the standard NHM dose, and 400 mg is used for older children/adolescents and adults.