← Departmental (other)

Past Questions β€” 2025

Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Deposits which have been kept under the head β€œDeposit” and have become time-barred or unclaimed for its refund/repayment are called

A) Lapsed Deposits
B) Unclaimed Deposits
C) Expired Deposits
D) None of these
Option A is correct: Lapsed Deposits.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Cash found short on physical count is temporarily classified in the Cash Book as:

A) 8658 Suspense Accounts
B) Miscellaneous Deposits
C) Miscellaneous Works Advances
D) Payments awaiting Transfer to other Heads of Accounts
Option A is correct: 8658 Suspense Accounts.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Refunds of Security deposits for a work, previously lapsed to Government are adjusted as:

A) Refund of Revenue
B) Refund of Deposits
C) Contingencies of the Work concerned
D) Debit to Misc. Works Advances
Option B is correct: Refund of Deposits.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

General Administration of Stores is vested to which Officer?

A) Divisional Officer
B) Divisional Accounts Officer
C) Sectional Engineer
D) Deputy Executive Engineer
Option A is correct: Divisional Officer.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

All Cheques, irrespective of the category, drawn for Rs. ________ lakhs and above shall bear two signatures.

A) 20
B) 15
C) 10
Option C is correct: 10.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

The space left blank whether in the money column or in the columns for particulars of the bill should invariably be covered by oblique lines.

A) True
B) False
Option A is correct: True.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

If the Challan is in duplicate, triplicate or quadruplicate, the challan marked ________ shall be returned to the tenderer.

A) copy
B) duplicate
C) original
Option B is correct: duplicate.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Annual Financial Statement of a State

A) Article 202
B) Article 220
Option A is correct: Article 202.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Arrears of pay, fixed allowances of leave salary shall be drawn in the ________.

A) ordinary monthly bill
B) in a separate bill
Option B is correct: in a separate bill.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Who is empowered to search and seize under the Act?

A) Any person
B) Only police constables
C) Village/Local Council members
D) Authorized Enforcement Officers
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, the power to search and seize is not granted to the general public or local council members, as these are legal procedures that require specific statutory authority to ensure the admissibility of evidence in court. While police officers may be involved, the Act specifically empowers 'Authorized Officers' or 'Enforcement Officers' (which typically include designated officers of the Excise and Narcotics Department and authorized police officers) to carry out searches and seizures of prohibited liquor and related materials. Option (a) is incorrect as it would lead to anarchy; option (b) is too narrow as constables usually act under the direction of a superior authorized officer; and option (c) is incorrect as Local Councils have administrative and social roles but lack the statutory police powers of search and seizure under this specific Act unless specifically deputized.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Possession of how much liquor is punishable under the Act?

A) Any quantity
B) Above 2 liters
C) More than 5 bottles
D) If sold in market
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, the state maintains a strict prohibition policy. The Act is designed to prohibit the manufacture, sale, transport, and possession of liquor within the state. Unlike some laws that provide a 'de minimis' threshold (a small amount that is exempt from prosecution), the prohibition regime in Mizoram is comprehensive. Therefore, the possession of liquor in 'any quantity' is an offense under the Act. Options b, c, and d are incorrect because the law does not set a minimum limit of 2 liters or 5 bottles for a crime to be committed, nor is the offense limited only to those who sell it in the market; mere possession is sufficient for prosecution.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Section 8 deals with:

A) Manufacturing of liquor
B) Punishment for possession and consumption
C) Publication of advertisement of liquor
D) Appointment of officers
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, the legislation is structured to strictly prohibit the manufacture, possession, consumption, and promotion of liquor within the state. Section 8 specifically addresses the 'Publication of advertisement of liquor,' making it an offense to advertise liquor to discourage its use and consumption among the public. Breakdown of other options: - Option (a) Manufacturing of liquor is typically covered under the primary prohibition sections (such as Section 3 or 4) which deal with the core ban on production. - Option (b) Punishment for possession and consumption is generally dealt with in the 'Penalties' sections following the prohibition clauses. - Option (d) Appointment of officers is usually found in the administrative or 'Powers of Officers' sections of the Act, rather than the early prohibitory sections.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Bail under NDPS Act is:

A) Easily available
B) Subject to strict conditions under Section 37
C) Mandatory for all accused
D) Not applicable
Option B is correct: Subject to strict conditions under Section 37.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Storage of seized drugs is regulated under:

A) Section 55
B) Section 60
C) Section 35
D) Section 70
Option A is correct: Section 55.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

What is the punishment for transporting liquor without license?

A) No punishment
B) Same as manufacturing
C) Warning only
D) Community service
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, the state maintains a strict prohibition regime. The Act is designed to deter the illegal trade of liquor by imposing stringent penalties. According to the penal provisions of the Act, the act of transporting liquor without a valid license is treated with the same severity as the illegal manufacturing of liquor. This is because transportation is a critical link in the supply chain of prohibited substances; without transportation, manufactured liquor cannot reach the market. Therefore, the punishment prescribed for the illegal transport of liquor is aligned with the punishment for illegal manufacturing to ensure a comprehensive deterrent effect across the entire illegal production-to-distribution cycle. Options a, c, and d are incorrect as they suggest leniency (no punishment, warning, or community service), which contradicts the strict prohibitory nature of the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Repeat offenders may face:

A) Lesser punishment
B) Warning only
C) Enhanced punishment
D) No action
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act and general principles of criminal jurisprudence applied in departmental and state laws, 'recidivism' (the act of repeating an offense) is treated as an aggravating factor. While a first-time offender may be eligible for leniency or the minimum prescribed penalty, a repeat offender demonstrates a willful disregard for the law. Consequently, the Act provides for 'Enhanced Punishment' for subsequent convictions to act as a stronger deterrent against the illegal manufacture, sale, or possession of liquor. Options (a), (b), and (d) are legally incorrect as they would undermine the purpose of the Prohibition Act.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

The NDPS Act was enacted in the year:

A) 1980
B) 1985
C) 1995
D) 2000
Option B is correct: 1985.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

What is the punishment for illegal sale of liquor?

A) Fine only
B) Imprisonment only
C) Both imprisonment and fine
D) No punishment
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, the illegal sale, manufacture, import, export, or possession of liquor is treated as a criminal offense. According to the penal provisions of the Act, the court has the authority to impose a combination of penalties to ensure deterrence. Specifically, for the illegal sale of liquor, the law prescribes a punishment that typically includes both a term of imprisonment (the duration of which varies based on the severity and repetition of the offense) and a monetary fine. Option (a) and (b) are incorrect because the law does not limit the punishment to only one of these measures, and option (d) is incorrect as illegal sale is a punishable offense under the state's prohibition laws.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

What is the minimum imprisonment for selling liquor illegally?

A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) No minimum mentioned
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, the sale of liquor is strictly prohibited. According to the penal provisions of the Act, any person who sells, offers for sale, or distributes liquor illegally is liable for punishment. The Act specifies that the punishment for such an offense shall be imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years, but shall not be less than six months, and shall also be liable to a fine. Therefore, the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for the illegal sale of liquor is 6 months.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

The Act allows liquor consumption with permit.

A) True
B) False
C) Depends on age
D) If prescribed by physicians only
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, the general rule is the prohibition of the manufacture, sale, and consumption of liquor. However, the Act provides specific legal mechanisms for exceptions. The government has the authority to grant permits for the consumption of liquor under specific circumstances, such as for medical reasons (prescribed by a registered medical practitioner) or for certain categories of persons/visitors. Since the Act explicitly contains provisions for the issuance of permits to allow consumption in authorized cases, the statement 'The Act allows liquor consumption with permit' is True. Option (b) is incorrect because the prohibition is not absolute. Option (c) is incorrect as age alone does not grant a right to consume without a permit. Option (d) is a subset of the permit system, but the permit system itself is broader than just physician prescriptions (e.g., it can include permits for non-residents or specific official exemptions).
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Destruction of seized narcotic drugs must be done:

A) By burning them at home
B) Without court order
C) In presence of magistrate and as per procedure
D) After the case has been disposed of
Option C is correct: In presence of magistrate and as per procedure.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Section 64A provides immunity to addicts if:

A) They bribe the police
B) They agree to undergo de-addiction treatment
C) They name other traffickers
D) They plead guilty
Option B is correct: They agree to undergo de-addiction treatment.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Enforcement Officers can conduct search and seizure:

A) Only with court warrant
B) Without any authority
C) With or without warrant as per the Act
D) Never
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, Enforcement Officers are granted specific powers to ensure the effective prohibition of liquor. While a search warrant issued by a Magistrate is the standard legal procedure for searches, the Act provides for 'emergency' or 'special' circumstances where an officer may have reason to believe that a delay in obtaining a warrant would lead to the removal, concealment, or destruction of the prohibited liquor or evidence. Therefore, the law empowers authorized officers to conduct searches and seizures both with a warrant (routine) and without a warrant (under specific conditions defined in the Act), provided the legal protocols for warrantless searches are followed. Option (a) is too restrictive, (b) is legally incorrect as authority is always required, and (d) is factually wrong.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Which schedule in the Act lists psychotropic substances?

A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV
Option A is correct: Schedule I.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-III

Opium is derived from:

A) Cannabis
B) Poppy plant
C) Cocoa
D) Tobacco
Option B is correct: Poppy plant.