Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Under Section 339 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, permission to conduct an inquiry or trial must be obtained from a Magistrate by:
A)
Any police officer
B)
An Assistant Public Prosecutor
C)
A police officer not below the rank of Inspector
D)
A Public Prosecutor
Option C is correct: A police officer not below the rank of Inspector.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Under Section 224 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, threat of injury to public servant is punishable:
A)
for a term which may extend to two year, or with fine, or with both
B)
for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both
C)
for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both
D)
for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine
Option B is correct: for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Section 215 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 punishes:
A)
Theft of property
B)
Refusing to sign statement
C)
Kidnapping
D)
Refusing to answer public servant authorised to question
Option D is correct: Refusing to answer public servant authorised to question.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Section 201 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 relates to:
A)
Punishment for non-treatment of victim.
B)
Personating a public servant.
C)
Public servant framing an incorrect document with intent to cause injury
D)
Public servant unlawfully buying or bidding for property.
Option C is correct: Public servant framing an incorrect document with intent to cause injury.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Under Section 2(y) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, who is a “victim”?
A)
Only a person who has suffered physical injury due to the commission of an offence.
B)
Only the complainant in a criminal case.
C)
Any witness examined during the trial.
D)
A person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission for which the accused person has been charged, and includes the victim’s guardian or legal heir.
Option D is correct: A person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission for which the accused person has been charged, and includes the victim’s guardian or legal heir..
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Section 261 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 primarily deals with:
A)
Resistance or obstruction to lawful apprehension of another person
B)
Escape from confinement or custody negligently suffered by public servant.
C)
Kidnapping
D)
Resistance or obstruction by a person to his lawful apprehension.
Option D is correct: Resistance or obstruction by a person to his lawful apprehension..
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Which Article of the Constitution deals with protection against arrest and detention in certain cases?
A)
Article 22
B)
Article 20
C)
Article 19
D)
Article 32
Option A is correct: Article 22.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Section 478 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, relates to:
A)
Bail in a Non-bailable offence
B)
Sanction for prosecution
C)
Bail in a bailable offence
D)
Acquital of the accused
Option C is correct: Bail in a bailable offence.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Section 67 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with:
A)
Sexual intercourse by employing deceitful means, etc.
B)
Sexual intercourse by husband upon wife during separation
C)
Dowry death
D)
Voyeurism
Option B is correct: Sexual intercourse by husband upon wife during separation.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Under Section 227 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, giving false evidence is commonly known as:
A)
Defamation
B)
Cheating
C)
Perjury
D)
Mischief
Option C is correct: Perjury.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Article 20 of the Constitution of India provides protection in respect of:
A)
Conviction for offences
B)
Cultural rights
C)
Freedom of religion
D)
Property rights
Option A is correct: Conviction for offences.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Under Section 64 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of rape is primarily punishable with:
A)
Rigorous imprisonment not less than 7 years
B)
Imprisonment up to 5 years
C)
Rigorous imprisonment not less than 10 years
D)
Rigorous imprisonment not less than 5 years
Option C is correct: Rigorous imprisonment not less than 10 years.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Section 64 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with:
A)
Arrest by Magistrate
B)
Search warrant
C)
Service of summons
D)
Recording of evidence
Option C is correct: Service of summons.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Article 50 is included in which part of the Constitution?
A)
Fundamental Rights
B)
Fundamental Duties
C)
Preamble
D)
Directive Principles of State Policy
Option D is correct: Directive Principles of State Policy.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Article 22 requires that an arrested person be produced before the nearest magistrate within:
A)
12 hours
B)
24 hours
C)
48 hours
D)
72 hours
Option B is correct: 24 hours.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Section 229 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with:
A)
Punishment for false evidence
B)
Punishment for Personation of assessor
C)
Punishment for Sedition
D)
Punishment for Forgery
Option A is correct: Punishment for false evidence.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Section 240 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is related to:
A)
Destruction of document or electronic record to prevent its production as evidence.
B)
Using as genuine a forged document or electronic record.
C)
Fraudulent claim to property to prevent its seizure as forfeited or in execution.
D)
Giving false information respecting an offence committed.
Option D is correct: Giving false information respecting an offence committed..
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Section 480 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, relates to when bail may be granted in the case of a non-bailable offence. Which of the following statements is correct?
A)
A person accused of a non-bailable offence may be released on bail, subject to the provisions and restrictions laid down under Section 480.
B)
Every person accused of a non-bailable offence is entitled to bail as a matter of right.
C)
Bail can never be granted in a non-bailable offence.
D)
Only the Sessions Judge and the High Court may grant bail in a non-bailable offence.
Option A is correct: A person accused of a non-bailable offence may be released on bail, subject to the provisions and restrictions laid down under Section 480..
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Under Section 2(l) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, “investigation” means:
A)
Every inquiry conducted by a Magistrate or Court.
B)
Every trial conducted by a Criminal Court.
C)
All proceedings under this Sanhita for the collection of evidence conducted by a police officer or by any person (other than a Magistrate) who is authorised by a Magistrate in this behalf.
D)
Any departmental proceeding conducted by a public servant.
Option C is correct: All proceedings under this Sanhita for the collection of evidence conducted by a police officer or by any person (other than a Magistrate) who is authorised by a Magistrate in this behalf..
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Under Article 20(1), a person cannot be punished for an act which was not an offence at the time of its commission. This principle is known as:
A)
Double jeopardy
B)
Preventive detention
C)
Ex post facto law prohibition
D)
Judicial review
Option C is correct: Ex post facto law prohibition.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Article 20(2) of the Constitution embodies the principle of:
A)
Rule of law
B)
Separation of powers
C)
Natural justice
D)
Double jeopardy
Option D is correct: Double jeopardy.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-II
Under Section 2(k) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, “inquiry” means:
A)
Every investigation conducted by a police officer.
B)
Every trial conducted by a Magistrate or Court.
C)
Every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under this Sanhita by a Magistrate or Court.
D)
Any administrative proceeding conducted by a public servant.
Option C is correct: Every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under this Sanhita by a Magistrate or Court..
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-I
A Government servant who opts to count previous military service as qualifying service is required to refund the earlier military pension/gratuity in:
A)
A single lump-sum payment only
B)
Monthly instalments not exceeding 36 in number
C)
Monthly instalments not exceeding 12 in number
D)
Annual instalments over five years
Option B is correct: Monthly instalments not exceeding 36 in number.
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-I
EOL for higher technical studies:
A)
counts as qualifying service.
B)
does not count as qualifying service.
C)
counts as qualifying service only when it is in public interest.
D)
counts as qualifying service when the employee returns and serves the Government after completion of studies.
Option C is correct: counts as qualifying service only when it is in public interest..
Departmental (other) • 2026 • Paper-I
For the purpose of Retirement Gratuity and Death Gratuity, married daughters are:
A)
included if dependent on Government servant.
B)
not included as family member.
C)
included as family member.
D)
None of the above.
Option C is correct: included as family member..
