← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
The commander of the initially called the 27th Lushai Labour Corps serving in France during World War I was:
A)
Lieutenant Colonel A Playfair
B)
Major GH Loch
C)
J Hezlett
D)
HAC Colouhoun
The 27th Lushai Labour Corps was raised in 1917 during World War I to assist the Allied war effort in France. It was commanded by Mr. J. Hezlett, ICS, who was the Superintendent of the Lushai Hills at the time.
- Option A (Lieutenant Colonel A Playfair) was a British officer associated with the administration of the Garo Hills and other regions in Assam, but did not command this corps.
- Option B (Major GH Loch) served as the Commandant of the Lushai Hills Military Police at an earlier period (late 19th and early 20th century).
- Option D (HAC Colquhoun/Colouhoun) was an ICS officer who served as the Superintendent of the Lushai Hills much earlier (around 1905–1906) and was not the commander during WWI.
Which ceremony was supposed to make successful hunting probably; foretold the result and performed before a large hunting party started?
A)
Fano dawi
B)
Nau lai hrilh
C)
Kawngpui siam
D)
Vanchung khal
In traditional Mizo culture, 'Kawngpui siam' (literally meaning 'making of the great path') was a public religious ceremony performed on the main path outside the village before a large hunting party set out. It was believed to ensure a successful hunt and foretell the outcome of the expedition through divinations. On the other hand, 'Fano dawi' is a domestic ritual for family prosperity, 'Nau lai hrilh' refers to childbirth-related taboos and observances, and 'Vanchung khal' is a sacrifice offered to heavenly spirits to cure illnesses or seek blessings.
In a row of children, Alice is sixth from the left and Zoa is fifth form the right. When they interchange their positions, Alice becomes fifteenth from the left, then what will be the position of Zoa from the right?
A)
10th
B)
12th
C)
14th
D)
16th
To find Zoa's new position from the right after they interchange positions, we can use two methods:
1. **Shift Method (Quickest):**
- Alice's position changes from 6th from the left to 15th from the left. This is an increase of 9 positions (15 - 6 = 9).
- Since they interchanged positions, Zoa's position from the right will also increase by the same number of positions.
- Zoa's new position from the right = 5 + 9 = 14th.
2. **Total Number of Children Method:**
- After interchanging, Alice is at Zoa's old position, which is 5th from the right and 15th from the left.
- Total number of children in the row = (Position from Left + Position from Right) - 1 = 15 + 5 - 1 = 19.
- Zoa is now at Alice's old position, which is 6th from the left.
- Zoa's position from the right = (Total - Position from Left) + 1 = (19 - 6) + 1 = 14th.
**Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option a (10th):** Incorrect because it assumes a shift of only 5 positions instead of 9.
- **Option b (12th):** Incorrect because it does not account for the correct shift of 9 places.
- **Option d (16th):** Incorrect because it overestimates the shift.
Who was the first Governor of the Union Territory of Mizoram in 1972?
A)
Hiteswar Saikia
B)
S.K. Chibber
C)
Williamson A. Sangma
D)
S.P. Mukherjee
S.P. Mukherjee (Shanti Priya Mukherjee) was the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Mizoram, serving from January 21, 1972, to April 23, 1974.
- Option B (S.K. Chibber) was the second Lieutenant Governor of Mizoram, serving from 1974 to 1977.
- Option A (Hiteswar Saikia) served as the Governor of Mizoram much later, from 1987 to 1989, after Mizoram attained full statehood.
- Option C (Williamson A. Sangma) was a pioneer leader from Meghalaya and served as its first Chief Minister, not as the Governor of Mizoram.
Long term exposure to which of the following element can cause cancer?
A)
Iron
B)
Chlorine
C)
Iodine
D)
Arsenic
Arsenic is a highly toxic element and a well-documented Group 1 human carcinogen. Long-term exposure to arsenic, primarily through contaminated drinking water and food, is scientifically proven to cause cancers of the skin, lungs, bladder, and kidneys. In contrast, Iron (a) and Iodine (c) are essential dietary nutrients required for normal body function, and Chlorine (b) is a common disinfectant that, while toxic in high concentrations, is not classified as a primary carcinogen under normal exposure conditions.
What is the primary objective of the ‘IMPRINT’ (IMpacting Research INnovation and Technology) initiative in India?
A)
To identify and solve major science and engineering challenges relevant to India through a pan-IIT and IISc joint initiative.
B)
To provide scholarships for students studying abroad in STEM fields.
C)
To regulate the ethics of Artificial Intelligence in healthcare.
D)
To digitize all historical scientific manuscripts available in Indian libraries.
The 'IMPRINT' (IMpacting Research INnovation and Technology) initiative is a joint venture of the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc). Its primary objective is to identify and solve major science and engineering challenges that are of direct relevance to India, aiming to translate research into practical technology. Option b is incorrect because IMPRINT focuses on domestic research and development rather than foreign scholarships. Option c is incorrect as it is not a regulatory body for AI ethics. Option d is incorrect because the initiative is focused on future-oriented technological innovation rather than historical manuscript digitization.
Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?
A)
Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
B)
Uniform civil code for all citizens
C)
Separation of Judiciary from Executive
D)
Promotion of cottage industries
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are classified into three broad categories: Socialistic, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual. The 'Promotion of cottage industries' (Article 43) is based on Gandhian ideology, which emphasizes rural development, self-reliance, and decentralization. On the other hand, 'Equal pay for equal work' (Article 39) is a Socialistic principle, while 'Uniform civil code' (Article 44) and 'Separation of Judiciary from Executive' (Article 50) are Liberal-Intellectual principles.
What is the primary function of the ‘Reserve Bank of India (RBI)’?
A)
To provide loans directly to farmers and industrialists.
B)
To issue currency and control money supply.
C)
To collect taxes on behalf of the government.
D)
To manage the stock market operations.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of the country. Its primary functions include the sole authority to issue currency notes (except one-rupee notes and coins) and to regulate the money supply and credit in the economy through monetary policy instruments. Option 'a' is incorrect because the RBI does not provide loans directly to the public; this is done by commercial banks and specialized institutions like NABARD. Option 'c' is incorrect because tax collection is managed by the Ministry of Finance through the CBDT and CBIC. Option 'd' is incorrect because the stock market is regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
The All-India Services are:
A)
Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Forest Service
B)
Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Foreign Service
C)
Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Revenue Service
D)
Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian Forest Service and Indian Revenue Service
Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, there are only three All-India Services (AIS): the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), the Indian Police Service (IPS), and the Indian Forest Service (IFoS). The Indian Forest Service was added as the third All-India Service in 1966. Other services like the Indian Foreign Service (IFS) and the Indian Revenue Service (IRS) are Central Services (Group A) and not All-India Services, which makes options b, c, and d incorrect. Officers of the All-India Services are recruited by the Centre but serve under both the Central and State governments.
A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President of India for a maximum period of?
A)
6 Months
B)
3 Months
C)
4 Months
D)
9 Months
According to Article 75(5) of the Constitution of India, a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister. Therefore, a person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister for a maximum period of 6 months, within which they must secure a seat in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. The other options (3 Months, 4 Months, and 9 Months) are incorrect as they do not align with this constitutional mandate.
The members of which of the following can be appointed as ministers in State Government? 1. State Legislative Assembly 2. State Legislative Council 3. Panchayat 4. Municipality
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 1 & 2
C)
Only 1, 2 & 3
D)
All of the above
According to the Constitution of India (Article 164), a minister in a State Government must be a member of either the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) or the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad, in states where bicameralism exists). If a non-member is appointed as a minister, they must get elected to either of these two houses within six months. Members of Panchayats (3) and Municipalities (4) are part of local self-government bodies and cannot be appointed as ministers in the State Government by virtue of their local body membership. Therefore, only members of the State Legislative Assembly and State Legislative Council can be appointed as ministers.
Of the following Prime Ministers who did not face the Union Parliament even once?
A)
Lal Bahadur Shastri
B)
Charan Singh
C)
Morarji Desai
D)
VP Singh
Chaudhary Charan Singh (option b) served as the Prime Minister of India from 28 July 1979 to 14 January 1980. He resigned from his post after the Congress (I) withdrew its support just before he was scheduled to prove his majority in the Lok Sabha, making him the only Indian Prime Minister who never faced the Parliament during his tenure. In contrast, Lal Bahadur Shastri (option a), Morarji Desai (option c), and V.P. Singh (option d) all actively attended and faced parliamentary sessions during their respective tenures as Prime Minister.
With respect to the ‘Demographic Transition’ in India, the year 1921 is regarded as the ‘Year of Great Divide’ because:
A)
India’s population started declining after this year.
B)
Before this year, population growth was stagnant; after 1921, it began to rise consistently.
C)
The literacy rate crossed 50% for the first time.
D)
The mortality rate became higher than the birth rate permanently.
The year 1921 is known as the 'Year of Great Divide' in India's demographic history because it marks a transition from the first stage of demographic transition (characterized by high birth rates, high death rates, and stagnant population growth) to the second stage. Before 1921, India's population growth was sporadic, fluctuating, and even recorded a negative growth rate between 1911 and 1921 due to famines and epidemics like the influenza pandemic. After 1921, improvements in health and sanitation led to a decline in mortality rates while birth rates remained high, causing the population to grow consistently and rapidly.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because India's population began to rise consistently after 1921, rather than declining.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because the literacy rate in India in 1921 was extremely low (less than 10%) and did not cross the 50% mark until decades after independence.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because the mortality rate declined relative to the birth rate, which is the primary reason for the subsequent population growth.
Choose the correct pair: (i) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18) (ii) Right to Freedom (Articles 29-30) (iii) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24) (iv) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
A)
(i), (ii), (iii)
B)
(ii), (iii), (iv)
C)
(i), (ii), ( iv)
D)
(i), (iii), (iv)
To determine the correct pairs, let's analyze each statement based on the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution:
1. **(i) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)** is correct.
2. **(ii) Right to Freedom (Articles 29-30)** is incorrect. The Right to Freedom is covered under Articles 19-22. Articles 29-30 actually guarantee 'Cultural and Educational Rights'.
3. **(iii) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)** is correct.
4. **(iv) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)** is correct.
Since pairs (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct, option 'd' is the correct choice. Options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect because they include the incorrect pair (ii).
Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?
A)
Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
B)
West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
C)
Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
D)
State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)
The correct option is 'a' (Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab, 1967). In this landmark judgment, an eleven-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India ruled that Parliament cannot amend or abridge the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution.
Why other options are incorrect:
- **West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963):** This case primarily dealt with the nature of Indian federalism and the power of the Parliament to acquire land vested in the State.
- **Sharma vs. Krishna (1959):** This case focused on the relationship and conflict between legislative privileges (Article 194) and the freedom of speech and expression.
- **State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951):** This case dealt with the constitutional validity of the Bombay Prohibition Act and the extent of reasonable restrictions on the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property.
Who among the following hold office during the pleasure of the President?
A)
Governor of a State
B)
Prime Minister
C)
Chief Election Commissioner
D)
Speaker of Lok Sabha
1. **Governor of a State (Correct):** According to Article 156(1) of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State holds office during the pleasure of the President. They have no security of tenure and can be removed by the President at any time.
2. **Prime Minister (Incorrect):** Although Article 75(2) states that ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, the Prime Minister cannot be dismissed by the President as long as they enjoy the majority support in the Lok Sabha.
3. **Chief Election Commissioner (Incorrect):** Under Article 324(5), the Chief Election Commissioner has security of tenure and can only be removed from office in a manner similar to a Judge of the Supreme Court (i.e., through parliamentary impeachment).
4. **Speaker of Lok Sabha (Incorrect):** The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha and can be removed only by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha (Article 94), not at the pleasure of the President.
‘Saddle peak’- the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar island is located in:
A)
Great Nicobar
B)
Middle Andaman
C)
Little Andaman
D)
North Andaman
Saddle Peak is the highest point in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, with an elevation of 732 meters. It is located in North Andaman and is surrounded by Saddle Peak National Park.
- Great Nicobar: The highest peak here is Mount Thullier (642 m), which is the highest peak of the Nicobar group.
- Middle Andaman: The highest point here is Mount Diavolo (295 m).
- Little Andaman: This island is relatively flat with much lower elevations (highest point is around 183 m).
Which one of the following forests is the most dominant forest in India?
A)
Tropical Semi-Evergreen Forest
B)
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest
C)
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
D)
Tropical Deciduous Forest
Tropical Deciduous Forests (also known as Monsoon Forests) are the most dominant and widespread forest type in India, covering over 60% of the total forest area. They thrive in regions receiving rainfall between 70 cm and 200 cm. Other options are incorrect because:
- 'Tropical Wet Evergreen' (c) and 'Tropical Semi-Evergreen' (a) forests are restricted to high-rainfall areas like the Western Ghats and Northeast India.
- 'Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest' (b) is merely a sub-category of the broader 'Tropical Deciduous Forest' (d), which encompasses both moist and dry deciduous types.
Judicial review function of the Supreme Court means the power to:
A)
Review the functioning of the judiciary in the country
B)
Undertake periodic review of the Constitution
C)
Examine the constitutional validity of laws
D)
Review its own judgement
Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments. If a law is found to violate the Constitution, the Supreme Court can declare it unconstitutional and void. Option 'a' is incorrect because supervising the administrative functioning of lower courts is part of administrative superintendence, not judicial review. Option 'b' is incorrect because the Supreme Court does not undertake periodic reviews of the Constitution; that is a legislative or constituent function. Option 'd' is incorrect because reviewing its own judgment is a specific power under Article 137 (Review Petition), which is distinct from the general doctrine of judicial review of legislative and executive actions.
Which of the following best defines ‘Worker-Population Ratio’?
A)
The number of people unemployed divided by total population.
B)
The number of persons employed per 100 persons in the population.
C)
The ratio of male workers to female workers.
D)
The ratio of workers in the industrial sector to those in agriculture.
The Worker-Population Ratio (WPR) is a key indicator used to analyze the employment situation in a country. It is defined as the percentage of the total population that is actively employed, which mathematically translates to the number of employed persons per 100 persons in the population. Option 'a' is incorrect because it refers to unemployment rather than employment. Options 'c' and 'd' are incorrect as they describe gender distribution among workers and sectoral employment ratios, respectively, rather than the overall worker-to-population relationship.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Hazaribagh - Mica (b) Hutti - Gold (c) Jaduguda - Uranium (d) Zawar - Copper
A)
Hazaribagh - Mica
B)
Hutti - Gold
C)
Jaduguda - Uranium
D)
Zawar - Copper
Option (d) is not correctly matched because Zawar (located in Udaipur, Rajasthan) is famous for Zinc, Lead, and Silver mining, not Copper. Copper in Rajasthan is primarily mined in the Khetri region. The other options are correctly matched: (a) Hazaribagh in Jharkhand is a major hub for Mica mining; (b) Hutti in Karnataka is famous for its active Gold mines; and (c) Jaduguda in Jharkhand is home to India's first and most prominent Uranium mine.
The reservation percentage for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in India’s Central Government jobs and education is:
A)
5%
B)
6%
C)
6.5%
D)
7.5%
In India, the reservation percentage allocated for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in Central Government jobs and higher education institutions is 7.5%. This is based on their proportion in the population as per the constitutional provisions. The other options (5%, 6%, and 6.5%) are incorrect as they do not represent the officially mandated reservation quota for STs at the central level (which is 15% for SCs, 7.5% for STs, and 27% for OBCs).
‘Jog Falls’ is created by which river?
A)
Narmada
B)
Mahanadi
C)
Sharavathi
D)
Krishna
Jog Falls, one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India, is created by the Sharavathi River in the Shimoga district of Karnataka. The other options are incorrect because: Narmada River is famous for creating the Dhuandhar Falls in Madhya Pradesh; Mahanadi River is associated with the Hirakud Dam and does not form Jog Falls; Krishna River is associated with waterfalls like Ethipothala Falls but not Jog Falls.
Capital account balance of payment records:
A)
Export earnings
B)
Foreign investment and loans
C)
Insurance receipts
D)
Remittances
The Balance of Payments (BoP) is divided into the Current Account and the Capital Account. The Capital Account records transactions that lead to a change in the assets or liabilities of a country's residents or its government. This includes foreign investments (like FDI and FPI) and external loans or borrowings. Therefore, option 'b' is correct. In contrast, the Current Account records trade in goods, services, and transfer payments. 'Export earnings' (option a) and 'Insurance receipts' (option c) represent trade in goods and services respectively, while 'Remittances' (option d) are unilateral transfer payments; all of these are recorded in the Current Account.
Which writ is issued to address unlawful detention?
A)
Mandamus
B)
Quo Warranto
C)
Habeas Corpus
D)
Prohibition
The writ of 'Habeas Corpus' (literally meaning 'to have the body of') is issued by courts to protect individual liberty against unlawful detention. It commands the detaining authority to produce the detained person before the court to examine the legality of the detention. Other options are incorrect because: 'Mandamus' is issued to command a public official to perform their duty; 'Quo Warranto' is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office; and 'Prohibition' is issued by a higher court to a lower court to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction.