← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
Who among the following is known as the ‘Architect of Indian Planning’ for his contribution to the Second Five Year Plan strategy?
A)
V.K.R.V. Rao
B)
Dadabhai Naoroji
C)
P.C. Mahalanobis
D)
Amartya Sen
Prasanta Chandra (P.C.) Mahalanobis is widely regarded as the 'Architect of Indian Planning'. He formulated the strategy for the Second Five Year Plan (1956–1961), which focused on rapid industrialization and the development of basic and heavy industries (known as the Mahalanobis Model).
- **V.K.R.V. Rao (Option a):** He was a prominent Indian economist known for being the first to apply scientific methods to estimate India's national income, but he was not the architect of the Second Plan.
- **Dadabhai Naoroji (Option b):** Known as the 'Grand Old Man of India', he was the first to estimate national income during the British era and proposed the 'Drain of Wealth' theory.
- **Amartya Sen (Option d):** He is a Nobel laureate economist famous for his contributions to welfare economics, social choice theory, and human development, long after the early Five-Year Plans.
Guru Ghasidas is one of the largest National Parks in India and is located in the state of:
A)
Gujarat
B)
Uttarakhand
C)
Chhattisgarh
D)
Andhra Pradesh
Guru Ghasidas National Park is located in the state of Chhattisgarh (specifically in the Koriya, Manendragarh-Chirmiri-Bharatpur, and Surajpur districts). It was formerly part of the Sanjay National Park before Chhattisgarh was separated from Madhya Pradesh.
Why other options are incorrect:
- (a) Gujarat: Known for national parks like Gir National Park and Blackbuck National Park.
- (b) Uttarakhand: Famous for Jim Corbett National Park, Valley of Flowers, and Nanda Devi National Park.
- (d) Andhra Pradesh: Home to Papikonda National Park and Sri Venkateswara National Park.
The Mahalanobis strategy of planning emphasized:
A)
Agriculture-led growth
B)
Heavy industrialization
C)
Export-led growth
D)
Service sector dominance
The Mahalanobis strategy of planning, which formed the basis of India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), strongly emphasized rapid industrialization with a focus on heavy and basic industries (capital goods sector) to achieve long-term self-reliant economic growth. Option 'a' (Agriculture-led growth) was the focus of the First Five-Year Plan. Option 'c' (Export-led growth) was not favored, as the model leaned towards import substitution and self-sufficiency. Option 'd' (Service sector dominance) is incorrect because the service sector became a major driver of the Indian economy much later, post the 1991 economic reforms.
Liberalisation policies in India aimed to:
A)
Reduce foreign investment
B)
Expand public sector monopoly
C)
Control industrial growth
D)
Increase the role of the private sector
Liberalisation policies introduced in India in 1991 aimed to deregulate the economy, dismantle the 'License Raj', and reduce government intervention, thereby significantly increasing the role of the private sector in economic development. Option 'a' is incorrect because the policies aimed to encourage and increase foreign investment, not reduce it. Option 'b' is incorrect because liberalisation sought to end public sector monopolies by opening up various industries to private players. Option 'c' is incorrect because the objective was to stimulate and accelerate industrial growth by removing restrictive barriers, rather than controlling it.
Which one is the least urbanised among the following states of India?
A)
Chhattisgarh
B)
Jharkhand
C)
Odisha
D)
Rajasthan
According to the 2011 Census of India, the urbanization rates (percentage of urban population to the total population) of the given states are as follows: Odisha has the lowest urbanization rate at approximately 16.68%. In comparison, Chhattisgarh has an urbanization rate of 23.24%, Jharkhand has 24.05%, and Rajasthan has 24.87%. Therefore, Odisha is the least urbanised state among the options provided.
Consolidation of land holdings helps to:
A)
Increase fragmentation
B)
Reduce soil fertility
C)
Improve efficiency and reduce boundary disputes
D)
Increase tenancy
Consolidation of land holdings refers to the practice of merging scattered, small plots of land into a single, compact farm. This process significantly improves agricultural efficiency by allowing the use of modern machinery, better irrigation management, and easier supervision. It also reduces the number of shared borders, thereby minimizing boundary disputes among farmers. Option 'a' is incorrect because consolidation reduces fragmentation rather than increasing it. Option 'b' is incorrect because consolidation does not reduce soil fertility. Option 'd' is incorrect because consolidation is aimed at improving operational efficiency for landholders and does not inherently increase tenancy.
The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were made a part of the Preamble by:
A)
Constitution Forty-First Amendment Act, 1976
B)
Constitution Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
C)
Constitution Forty-Sixth Amendment Act, 1982
D)
Constitution Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976
The words 'socialist', 'secular', and 'integrity' were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, which is often referred to as the 'Mini-Constitution' due to the vast number of changes it introduced.
- Option 'a' (41st Amendment, 1976) is incorrect as it raised the retirement age of State Public Service Commission members from 60 to 62 years.
- Option 'b' (44th Amendment, 1978) is incorrect as it was enacted by the Janata Government to undo several distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment, particularly regarding emergency provisions and fundamental rights, but it did not remove these words from the Preamble.
- Option 'c' (46th Amendment, 1982) is incorrect as it primarily dealt with issues related to sales tax and indirect taxation.
Priority sector lending aims at providing credit to:
A)
Large industries
B)
Agriculture, MSMEs, and weaker sections
C)
Stock markets
D)
Multinational companies
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) is a mandate by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) requiring commercial banks to allocate a specified portion of their lending to sectors that impact large segments of the population, the weaker sections, and sectors which are employment-intensive. This includes Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Education, Housing, Export Credit, Renewables, and Weaker Sections. Large industries (Option a), Stock markets (Option c), and Multinational companies (Option d) do not fall under this category as they have access to diverse funding sources and do not require government-mandated credit support.
Which of the following states has the literacy rate lower than the national average as per 2011 Census?
A)
Karnataka
B)
Kerala
C)
Andhra Pradesh
D)
Tamil Nadu
According to the 2011 Census of India, the national average literacy rate is 74.04%. Among the given options, Andhra Pradesh is the only state with a literacy rate lower than the national average, standing at 67.02%. The other states have literacy rates higher than the national average: Kerala has the highest at 94.00%, followed by Tamil Nadu at 80.09%, and Karnataka at 75.36%.
Terms of trade measure the relationship between:
A)
Imports and GDP
B)
Export prices and import prices
C)
Exports and GDP
D)
Balance of payments and trade
Terms of trade (TOT) is an economic metric defined as the ratio of a country's export prices to its import prices, calculated as: (Index of Export Prices / Index of Import Prices) * 100. It measures how many units of imports a country can purchase for every unit of exports it sells. Options 'a' and 'c' are incorrect because the relationship between imports/exports and GDP represents trade openness or the trade-to-GDP ratio. Option 'd' is incorrect because the Balance of Payments is a comprehensive record of all economic transactions between a country and the rest of the world, which is distinct from the price-ratio focus of the terms of trade.
Who amongst the following issues Writs?
A)
Supreme Court of India
B)
High Court of a State
C)
President of India
D)
Both (a) & (b)
In India, the power to issue writs is vested in both the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Under Article 226, High Courts have a broader power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other legal rights. Therefore, option (d) is correct as it includes both (a) and (b). The President of India (option c) does not possess the judicial authority to issue writs.
Capital expenditure mainly leads to:
A)
Creation of assets
B)
Reduction in revenue
C)
Increase in consumption
D)
Inflation control only
Capital expenditure (CapEx) refers to the funds spent by a government or organization to acquire, construct, or upgrade physical assets such as infrastructure, machinery, and buildings. Therefore, its primary and direct outcome is the creation of assets that enhance the productive capacity of the economy.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because capital expenditure is an investment that can actually generate future revenue, rather than reducing it.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because revenue expenditure (like salaries and subsidies) is what directly drives consumption, whereas capital expenditure drives investment.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because controlling inflation is not the primary or sole objective of capital expenditure; its main goal is long-term economic growth.
Which of the following is not correct about Act East Policy?
A)
India’s Act East Policy was unveiled by the Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi at 12th ASEAN-India Summit in 2014 held in Myanmar.
B)
Act East Policy is the predecessor of Look East Policy.
C)
The Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative.
D)
The objective of ‘Act East Policy’ is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and development strategic relationship with countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
The statement in option 'b' is incorrect because the 'Look East Policy' (launched in 1991) is the predecessor of the 'Act East Policy' (launched in 2014), making the Act East Policy the successor, not the predecessor.
Why other options are correct statements:
- Option 'a' is correct: Prime Minister Narendra Modi formally launched the Act East Policy at the 12th ASEAN-India Summit in Myanmar in November 2014.
- Option 'c' is correct: The policy (originating from the Look East Policy of 1991) was originally conceived primarily as an economic initiative to integrate India with the high-growth East Asian economies.
- Option 'd' is correct: The core objective of the Act East Policy is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties, and develop strategic relationships with countries in the Asia-Pacific region through proactive engagement.
Which state in India has the highest percentage of Muslim population?
A)
Lakshadweep
B)
Bihar
C)
Assam
D)
Tamil Nadu
According to the 2011 Census of India, Lakshadweep has the highest percentage of Muslim population among all States and Union Territories, with Muslims constituting approximately 96.58% of its total population. Although Lakshadweep is a Union Territory, it is the correct answer among the given choices. Among the other options: Assam has a Muslim population of about 34.22% (the highest among the current states), Bihar has about 16.87%, and Tamil Nadu has about 5.86%.
States covered by the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution are:
A)
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram
B)
Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Mizoram
C)
Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram
D)
Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Mizoram
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (often remembered by the acronym 'AMTM'). Therefore, option (a) is correct. Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect because neither Manipur nor Nagaland is covered under the Sixth Schedule; Nagaland has special provisions under Article 371A, and Manipur is not part of this schedule.
Which region in India is a major hub for the Iron and Steel Industry, benefiting from raw material proximity?
A)
Northern Gangetic Plain
B)
Konkan Plain
C)
Kerala Plain
D)
Chotanagpur Plateau
The Chotanagpur Plateau is the correct answer because it is the mineral heartland of India, rich in iron ore, coal, manganese, and limestone. This concentration of essential raw materials has made it the primary hub for the country's iron and steel industry, hosting major plants like Jamshedpur, Bokaro, and Rourkela. In contrast, the Northern Gangetic Plain (option a) is an agricultural region dominated by alluvial soils, while the Konkan Plain (option b) and Kerala Plain (option c) are coastal regions on the western coast known for agriculture, fisheries, and tourism rather than heavy mineral-based industries.
SEBI regulates the:
A)
Banking system
B)
Insurance sector
C)
Cooperative banks
D)
Capital market
SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is the statutory regulatory body established in 1992 to regulate and oversee the capital market and securities market in India, protecting the interests of investors. The other options are incorrect because: the banking system (a) and cooperative banks (c) are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), while the insurance sector (b) is regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
The High Court having the jurisdiction in Judicial matters relating to the largest number of States/ Union Territories is:
A)
Kolkata High Court
B)
Kerala High Court
C)
Mumbai High Court
D)
Guwahati High Court
Guwahati High Court has the largest jurisdiction in terms of the number of states it covers. It has jurisdiction over 4 states: Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh.
- Mumbai High Court has jurisdiction over 2 states (Maharashtra and Goa) and 1 Union Territory (Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu).
- Kolkata High Court has jurisdiction over 1 state (West Bengal) and 1 Union Territory (Andaman and Nicobar Islands).
- Kerala High Court has jurisdiction over 1 state (Kerala) and 1 Union Territory (Lakshadweep).
In India, Right to Property is a:
A)
Legal Right
B)
Fundamental right
C)
Both a legal and a Fundamental Right
D)
Neither a legal right nor a Fundamental Right
In India, the Right to Property is currently a legal right. Originally, it was a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Constitution. However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and re-introduced it as Article 300A in Part XII, making it a legal (and constitutional) right. Therefore, option 'a' is correct. Options 'b' and 'c' are incorrect because it is no longer a Fundamental Right. Option 'd' is incorrect because it is indeed a legal right protected by Article 300A of the Constitution.
Judicial review function of the Supreme Court means the power to:
A)
Review the functioning of the judiciary in the country
B)
Undertake periodic review of the Constitution
C)
Examine the constitutional validity of laws
D)
Review its own judgement
Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments. If a law is found to violate the Constitution, the Supreme Court can declare it unconstitutional and void. Option 'a' is incorrect because supervising the administrative functioning of lower courts is part of administrative superintendence, not judicial review. Option 'b' is incorrect because the Supreme Court does not undertake periodic reviews of the Constitution; that is a legislative or constituent function. Option 'd' is incorrect because reviewing its own judgment is a specific power under Article 137 (Review Petition), which is distinct from the general doctrine of judicial review of legislative and executive actions.
The reservation percentage for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in India’s Central Government jobs and education is:
A)
5%
B)
6%
C)
6.5%
D)
7.5%
In India, the reservation percentage allocated for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in Central Government jobs and higher education institutions is 7.5%. This is based on their proportion in the population as per the constitutional provisions. The other options (5%, 6%, and 6.5%) are incorrect as they do not represent the officially mandated reservation quota for STs at the central level (which is 15% for SCs, 7.5% for STs, and 27% for OBCs).
Which of the following correctly defines ‘Fiscal Policy’?
A)
Policy regarding money supply and bank interest rates.
B)
Policy regarding government taxation and expenditure.
C)
Policy regarding export and import of goods.
D)
Policy regarding control of industrial labor.
Fiscal Policy is defined as the policy of the government regarding taxation, public spending, and public debt to influence the nation's economy. Therefore, option 'b' is correct.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because it describes 'Monetary Policy', which is managed by a country's central bank to control the money supply and interest rates.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because it refers to 'Trade Policy' or 'Commercial Policy'.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because it refers to 'Labor Policy' or 'Industrial Relations Policy'.
‘Disguised Unemployment’ is a characteristic feature of which sector in India?
A)
Organized Industrial Sector
B)
Information Technology Sector
C)
Agriculture Sector
D)
Banking and Financial Sector
Disguised unemployment is a phenomenon where more people are employed in an activity than are actually needed, meaning the marginal productivity of the extra labor is zero. In India, this is a primary characteristic of the Agriculture Sector, where entire families often work on small landholdings because of a lack of alternative employment opportunities, even though fewer people could manage the farm just as effectively. In contrast, the Organized Industrial Sector (option a), Information Technology Sector (option b), and Banking and Financial Sector (option d) are highly structured, profit-driven, and skill-based sectors that optimize their workforce to avoid redundant labor, making disguised unemployment virtually non-existent there.
‘Saddle peak’- the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar island is located in:
A)
Great Nicobar
B)
Middle Andaman
C)
Little Andaman
D)
North Andaman
Saddle Peak is the highest point in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, with an elevation of 732 meters. It is located in North Andaman and is surrounded by Saddle Peak National Park.
- Great Nicobar: The highest peak here is Mount Thullier (642 m), which is the highest peak of the Nicobar group.
- Middle Andaman: The highest point here is Mount Diavolo (295 m).
- Little Andaman: This island is relatively flat with much lower elevations (highest point is around 183 m).
Which one of the following is the largest container port in India?
A)
Kochi
B)
Vishakhapatnam
C)
Mangalore
D)
Nhava Sheva, Mumbai
Nhava Sheva (also known as Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust or JNPT), located in Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, is the largest container port in India. It handles the majority of India's containerized cargo. The other options are incorrect because: Kochi (Option a) is a major port in Kerala but not the largest container port; Vishakhapatnam (Option b) is a premier port on the east coast primarily known for bulk cargo; and Mangalore (Option c) is a major port in Karnataka that mainly handles commodities like LPG, coal, and iron ore rather than being the leading container hub.