← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions — 2026
A, B and C are sitting in a circle facing centre. L, M and N are also sitting in the same circle but two of them are facing in the opposite direction of the centre. A is second to the left of N. B is second to the right of L. M is third to the left of C. N is second to the right of C and L is seated next to A. Then, which of the following pairs are not facing the centre?
A)
AL
B)
AN
C)
ML
D)
MN
To solve this puzzle, let's place the 6 people (A, B, C, L, M, N) in a circle with positions numbered 1 to 6 in a clockwise (CW) direction. For those facing the centre, clockwise (CW) is left and counter-clockwise (CCW) is right. For those facing outward, CCW is left and CW is right.
1. **Positioning C, N, and M:** Let C (facing centre) be at position 1. Since N is second to the right of C, N is at position 3 (CCW). M is third to the left of C, so M is at position 4.
2. **Positioning L, A, and B:** The remaining positions are 2, 5, and 6. Since L is seated next to A, they must occupy adjacent positions, which can only be 5 and 6. This leaves position 2 for B.
3. **Determining L's position and direction:** B is second to the right of L. Since B is at position 2, L must be at position 6 (as position 5 would make B third to L). Moving from L (6) to B (2) is a CCW movement of 2 steps. Since this is to the 'right' of L, L must be facing the centre (where CCW is right).
4. **Determining the outward-facing pair:** We are given that two of L, M, and N face outward. Since L faces the centre, the two facing outward (not facing the centre) must be M and N.
This is verified by the clue 'A is second to the left of N'. A is at position 5 and N is at position 3. Moving from N (3) to A (5) is CCW (2 steps). Since CCW is 'left' for N, N must be facing outward. Thus, the pair not facing the centre is MN (Option d).
Mizo Academy of Letters Book of the Year, 2000 was awarded to:
A)
Lalsangzuali Sailo-Tlawm Ve Lo Lalnu Ropuiliani
B)
Rev. Zairema- Kan Bible Hi
C)
Dr. Laltluangliana Khiangte- Pasaltha Khuangchera
D)
R. Rozika- Chawngmawii leh Hrangchhuana
The Mizo Academy of Letters (MAL) Book of the Year for 2000 was awarded to 'Pasaltha Khuangchera' written by Dr. Laltluangliana Khiangte.
- Option 'a' (Lalsangzuali Sailo - Tlawm Ve Lo Lalnu Ropuiliani) won the award in 1999.
- Option 'b' (Rev. Zairema - Kan Bible Hi) won the award in 1998.
- Option 'd' (R. Rozika - Chawngmawii leh Hrangchhuana) won the award in 2001.
The Mizo chief who vehemently attacked the British force led by Captain John Shakespear at Chhipphir in 1892 was:
A)
Vansanga
B)
Dokhuma
C)
Lalburha
D)
Liankhama
In March 1892, during the Eastern Lushai rising, the Mizo chief Vansanga of Chhipphir vehemently attacked the British force led by Captain John Shakespear (the Superintendent of the South Lushai Hills) at Chhipphir. The other options (Dokhuma, Lalburha, and Liankhama) were also prominent Mizo chiefs who resisted British rule during different encounters in the Lushai Hills, but they were not the leaders of this specific attack at Chhipphir.
The ‘valley of death’ in India’s innovation ecosystem refers to:
A)
Brain drain of scientists
B)
Failure of startups after IPO
C)
Gap between research output and commercial deployment
D)
Decline in patent quality
The 'valley of death' in the innovation ecosystem refers to the critical gap between early-stage research/proof-of-concept and its successful commercialization and market deployment. Many promising innovations fail during this transition phase due to a lack of funding, scaling resources, and market-entry support. Option 'a' refers to human capital flight, option 'b' refers to post-listing business failures (which occur much later in a company's lifecycle), and option 'd' refers to intellectual property standards, making them incorrect.
The production of ginger by Biate village in year 2024 is 8000 kg which is 28% less than that in year 2025. Find the production of ginger in year 2025.
A)
10500 kg
B)
11111 kg
C)
12222 kg
D)
15050 kg
To find the production of ginger in the year 2025, let the production in 2025 be $x$ kg. Since the production in 2024 is 28% less than that in 2025, we can write the equation:
Production in 2024 = $x \times (1 - 0.28) = 0.72x$
Given that the production in 2024 is 8000 kg:
$0.72x = 8000$
$x = \frac{8000}{0.72} = \frac{800000}{72} \approx 11111.11$ kg.
Thus, the production of ginger in 2025 is approximately 11111 kg, which corresponds to option (b).
Other options are incorrect because calculating 72% of their values does not yield 8000 kg:
- For option (a): $10500 \times 0.72 = 7560$ kg
- For option (c): $12222 \times 0.72 \approx 8800$ kg
- For option (d): $15050 \times 0.72 = 10836$ kg
Who is the pioneer of ‘The Salvation Army’ in Mizoram?
A)
Chalchhuna
B)
Kawlkhuma
C)
Maj. Connor Richards
D)
Chhuahkhama
The correct option is 'b' (Kawlkhuma). Kawlkhuma is widely recognized as the pioneer of 'The Salvation Army' in Mizoram. He became the first Mizo to join the Salvation Army and officially introduced the movement to Mizoram in 1917.
- 'a' (Chalchhuna) is incorrect as he is not associated with pioneering the Salvation Army in Mizoram.
- 'c' (Maj. Connor Richards) is incorrect as he was not the pioneer who established the movement in the region.
- 'd' (Chhuahkhama) is incorrect because Rev. Chhuahkhama was the first ordained Mizo pastor, associated with the Presbyterian Church, not the Salvation Army.
The objective of industrial decentralization is to:
A)
Increase imports
B)
Increase monopolies
C)
Reduce regional imbalances
D)
Concentrate industries in cities
The correct option is 'c'. Industrial decentralization is the policy of spreading industrial units across various regions, especially backward and rural areas, rather than concentrating them in a few urban centers. Its primary objective is to promote balanced regional development and reduce regional imbalances. Option 'a' is incorrect because decentralization does not aim to increase imports. Option 'b' is incorrect because spreading industries encourages competition and discourages monopolies. Option 'd' is incorrect because concentrating industries in cities is the definition of centralization, which is the opposite of decentralization.
Which linguistic group has the largest number of speakers in India?
A)
The Dravidians
B)
The Indo-Aryans
C)
The Austric
D)
The Sino-Tibetan
The Indo-Aryan linguistic group (a branch of the Indo-European family) has the largest number of speakers in India, accounting for approximately 74% to 78% of the total population. It includes major languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Urdu, Gujarati, Punjabi, and Odia. In contrast, the Dravidian group (option a) is the second-largest, spoken by about 20% to 24% of the population, primarily in southern India. The Austric (option c) and Sino-Tibetan (option d) groups are spoken by much smaller minorities, representing roughly 1.2% and 0.6% of the population respectively.
Who amongst the following issues Writs?
A)
Supreme Court of India
B)
High Court of a State
C)
President of India
D)
Both (a) & (b)
In India, the power to issue writs is vested in both the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Under Article 226, High Courts have a broader power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other legal rights. Therefore, option (d) is correct as it includes both (a) and (b). The President of India (option c) does not possess the judicial authority to issue writs.
‘Operation flood’ is related to:
A)
Flood control measures
B)
Milk production
C)
Fish production
D)
Shrimp production
‘Operation Flood’, launched in 1970 by India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), is the world's largest dairy development program. It is directly related to milk production and is credited with launching the 'White Revolution' which transformed India from a milk-deficient nation into the world's largest milk producer. Option 'a' (Flood control measures) is incorrect as the name is metaphorical and not related to natural disasters. Option 'c' (Fish production) is associated with the 'Blue Revolution', and Option 'd' (Shrimp production) is related to aquaculture/Pink Revolution.
Assertion (A ): The service sector in India has grown rapidly in terms of contribution to GDP but not proportionately in terms of employment generation. Reason (R) : The service sector growth in India is led by high-skilled services which are not labor-intensive.
A)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B)
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C)
A is true but R is false.
D)
A is false but R is true.
1. **Why 'a' is correct**:
- **Assertion (A) is true**: In India, the service sector contributes over 50% to the GDP, but its share in employment remains disproportionately low (around 30%). This phenomenon is often described as jobless growth in the services sector.
- **Reason (R) is true**: The growth of India's service sector is heavily driven by modern, high-tech, and knowledge-intensive sub-sectors such as IT, software development, financial services, and telecommunications. These sectors require highly specialized skills and are not labor-intensive.
- **R is the correct explanation of A**: Because the growth is concentrated in these high-skilled, capital-intensive areas rather than labor-intensive services (like tourism or retail), the rapid rise in GDP contribution has not translated into proportionate job creation for the masses.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option 'b'** is incorrect because Reason (R) directly explains the cause behind Assertion (A).
- **Options 'c' and 'd'** are incorrect because both the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are factually correct statements.
Which one of the following rivers originates from the Himalayas?
A)
Chambal
B)
Damodar
C)
Gandak
D)
Kaveri
The Gandak River is a major river in India and Nepal that originates in the high Himalayas of Nepal (near the Tibet border) from the Nhubine Himal Glacier. It is a major left-bank tributary of the Ganges. In contrast, the other options are non-Himalayan rivers:
- Chambal originates from the Janapav Hills in the Vindhya Range (Madhya Pradesh).
- Damodar originates from the Chota Nagpur Plateau (Jharkhand).
- Kaveri originates from Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri Hills of the Western Ghats (Karnataka).
Which writ is issued to address unlawful detention?
A)
Mandamus
B)
Quo Warranto
C)
Habeas Corpus
D)
Prohibition
The writ of 'Habeas Corpus' (literally meaning 'to have the body of') is issued by courts to protect individual liberty against unlawful detention. It commands the detaining authority to produce the detained person before the court to examine the legality of the detention. Other options are incorrect because: 'Mandamus' is issued to command a public official to perform their duty; 'Quo Warranto' is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office; and 'Prohibition' is issued by a higher court to a lower court to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction.
‘Jog Falls’ is created by which river?
A)
Narmada
B)
Mahanadi
C)
Sharavathi
D)
Krishna
Jog Falls, one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India, is created by the Sharavathi River in the Shimoga district of Karnataka. The other options are incorrect because: Narmada River is famous for creating the Dhuandhar Falls in Madhya Pradesh; Mahanadi River is associated with the Hirakud Dam and does not form Jog Falls; Krishna River is associated with waterfalls like Ethipothala Falls but not Jog Falls.
Capital account balance of payment records:
A)
Export earnings
B)
Foreign investment and loans
C)
Insurance receipts
D)
Remittances
The Balance of Payments (BoP) is divided into the Current Account and the Capital Account. The Capital Account records transactions that lead to a change in the assets or liabilities of a country's residents or its government. This includes foreign investments (like FDI and FPI) and external loans or borrowings. Therefore, option 'b' is correct. In contrast, the Current Account records trade in goods, services, and transfer payments. 'Export earnings' (option a) and 'Insurance receipts' (option c) represent trade in goods and services respectively, while 'Remittances' (option d) are unilateral transfer payments; all of these are recorded in the Current Account.
Which one of the following seperates the Nilgiri Hills from the Anaimalai Hils?
A)
Thal ghat
B)
Bhor ghat
C)
Palghat gap
D)
Haldighati pass
The Palghat Gap (also known as the Palakkad Gap) is a major mountain pass in the Western Ghats of India that separates the Nilgiri Hills to the north from the Anaimalai Hills to the south, connecting Kerala with Tamil Nadu.
- **Thal ghat** and **Bhor ghat** are mountain passes located in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra, connecting Mumbai to Nashik and Pune respectively.
- **Haldighati pass** is a historic mountain pass in the Aravalli Range of Rajasthan, famous for the Battle of Haldighati.
The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956 classified industries into three categories. Which of the following correctly describes ‘Schedule B’ industries?
A)
Industries exclusively owned by the state.
B)
Industries left entirely to the private sector without government interference.
C)
Industries which would be progressively state-owned, but private enterprise could supplement state effort.
D)
Industries reserved for the Small Scale Sector (SSI) only.
Under the Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956, industries were classified into three distinct categories:
1. **Schedule A (Option a):** Industries that were exclusively owned by the State (17 industries, such as arms and ammunition, atomic energy, railways, etc.).
2. **Schedule B (Option c):** Industries that would be progressively state-owned, where the government would take the initiative to set up new units, but private enterprise was also expected to supplement the efforts of the State (12 industries, including aluminum, machine tools, fertilizers, etc.).
3. **Schedule C (Option b):** The remaining industries that were left to the private sector, though they were subject to state regulation and licensing.
Option d is incorrect as the classification did not reserve Schedule B for the Small Scale Sector (SSI).
Which is correct about the Government of India Act, 1919? (i) This Act is also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms (ii) A Constituent Assembly would be established consisting of 389 Members (iii) This Act made a provision for the establishment of an All India Federation consisting of provinces and Princely States as units. (iv) This Act introduce the system of Dyarchy which mean double rule in the provinces
A)
(i)
B)
(ii)
C)
(iii)
D)
(iv)
Statement (iv) is correct because the Government of India Act, 1919 introduced the system of 'Dyarchy' (dual rule) in the provinces, dividing provincial subjects into 'Transferred' and 'Reserved' categories.
Other statements are incorrect because:
- (i) The Government of India Act, 1919 is known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, whereas the Morley-Minto Reforms refer to the Act of 1909.
- (ii) The Constituent Assembly with 389 members was established under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, not the 1919 Act.
- (iii) The provision for an All India Federation consisting of provinces and Princely States was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1935.
Judicial review function of the Supreme Court means the power to:
A)
Review the functioning of the judiciary in the country
B)
Undertake periodic review of the Constitution
C)
Examine the constitutional validity of laws
D)
Review its own judgement
Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments. If a law is found to violate the Constitution, the Supreme Court can declare it unconstitutional and void. Option 'a' is incorrect because supervising the administrative functioning of lower courts is part of administrative superintendence, not judicial review. Option 'b' is incorrect because the Supreme Court does not undertake periodic reviews of the Constitution; that is a legislative or constituent function. Option 'd' is incorrect because reviewing its own judgment is a specific power under Article 137 (Review Petition), which is distinct from the general doctrine of judicial review of legislative and executive actions.
The reservation percentage for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in India’s Central Government jobs and education is:
A)
5%
B)
6%
C)
6.5%
D)
7.5%
In India, the reservation percentage allocated for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in Central Government jobs and higher education institutions is 7.5%. This is based on their proportion in the population as per the constitutional provisions. The other options (5%, 6%, and 6.5%) are incorrect as they do not represent the officially mandated reservation quota for STs at the central level (which is 15% for SCs, 7.5% for STs, and 27% for OBCs).
‘Saddle peak’- the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar island is located in:
A)
Great Nicobar
B)
Middle Andaman
C)
Little Andaman
D)
North Andaman
Saddle Peak is the highest point in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, with an elevation of 732 meters. It is located in North Andaman and is surrounded by Saddle Peak National Park.
- Great Nicobar: The highest peak here is Mount Thullier (642 m), which is the highest peak of the Nicobar group.
- Middle Andaman: The highest point here is Mount Diavolo (295 m).
- Little Andaman: This island is relatively flat with much lower elevations (highest point is around 183 m).
The High Court having the jurisdiction in Judicial matters relating to the largest number of States/ Union Territories is:
A)
Kolkata High Court
B)
Kerala High Court
C)
Mumbai High Court
D)
Guwahati High Court
Guwahati High Court has the largest jurisdiction in terms of the number of states it covers. It has jurisdiction over 4 states: Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh.
- Mumbai High Court has jurisdiction over 2 states (Maharashtra and Goa) and 1 Union Territory (Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu).
- Kolkata High Court has jurisdiction over 1 state (West Bengal) and 1 Union Territory (Andaman and Nicobar Islands).
- Kerala High Court has jurisdiction over 1 state (Kerala) and 1 Union Territory (Lakshadweep).
Which region in India is a major hub for the Iron and Steel Industry, benefiting from raw material proximity?
A)
Northern Gangetic Plain
B)
Konkan Plain
C)
Kerala Plain
D)
Chotanagpur Plateau
The Chotanagpur Plateau is the correct answer because it is the mineral heartland of India, rich in iron ore, coal, manganese, and limestone. This concentration of essential raw materials has made it the primary hub for the country's iron and steel industry, hosting major plants like Jamshedpur, Bokaro, and Rourkela. In contrast, the Northern Gangetic Plain (option a) is an agricultural region dominated by alluvial soils, while the Konkan Plain (option b) and Kerala Plain (option c) are coastal regions on the western coast known for agriculture, fisheries, and tourism rather than heavy mineral-based industries.
SEBI regulates the:
A)
Banking system
B)
Insurance sector
C)
Cooperative banks
D)
Capital market
SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is the statutory regulatory body established in 1992 to regulate and oversee the capital market and securities market in India, protecting the interests of investors. The other options are incorrect because: the banking system (a) and cooperative banks (c) are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), while the insurance sector (b) is regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
In India, Right to Property is a:
A)
Legal Right
B)
Fundamental right
C)
Both a legal and a Fundamental Right
D)
Neither a legal right nor a Fundamental Right
In India, the Right to Property is currently a legal right. Originally, it was a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Constitution. However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and re-introduced it as Article 300A in Part XII, making it a legal (and constitutional) right. Therefore, option 'a' is correct. Options 'b' and 'c' are incorrect because it is no longer a Fundamental Right. Option 'd' is incorrect because it is indeed a legal right protected by Article 300A of the Constitution.