← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions — 2026
Which of the following correctly defines ‘Fiscal Policy’?
A)
Policy regarding money supply and bank interest rates.
B)
Policy regarding government taxation and expenditure.
C)
Policy regarding export and import of goods.
D)
Policy regarding control of industrial labor.
Fiscal Policy is defined as the policy of the government regarding taxation, public spending, and public debt to influence the nation's economy. Therefore, option 'b' is correct.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because it describes 'Monetary Policy', which is managed by a country's central bank to control the money supply and interest rates.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because it refers to 'Trade Policy' or 'Commercial Policy'.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because it refers to 'Labor Policy' or 'Industrial Relations Policy'.
‘Deficit Financing’ in the context of the Indian budget implies:
A)
The government borrowing from the World Bank to build infrastructure.
B)
The government borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India to meet the excess of expenditure over revenue.
C)
The government selling public sector shares to private entities.
D)
The government reducing taxes to increase consumption.
In the context of the Indian budget, 'Deficit Financing' refers to the practice where the government covers the gap between its total expenditure and total revenue receipts by borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (often through the issuance of treasury bills), which leads to the creation of new money.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because borrowing from external bodies like the World Bank is classified as external debt/borrowing, not deficit financing.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because selling public sector shares is known as 'Disinvestment'.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because reducing taxes is a fiscal policy measure to stimulate demand, which may cause a deficit but is not the method of financing it.
Which state in India has the highest Scheduled Tribe population?
A)
Rajasthan
B)
Orissa
C)
Jharkhand
D)
Madhya Pradesh
According to the 2011 Census of India, Madhya Pradesh has the highest Scheduled Tribe (ST) population in the country, with over 1.53 crore (15.3 million) ST individuals, accounting for about 21.1% of the state's total population. Orissa (now Odisha) ranks third, Rajasthan ranks fourth, and Jharkhand, while having a high proportion of tribal population, has a lower absolute ST population compared to Madhya Pradesh.
Which state in India has the highest percentage of Muslim population?
A)
Lakshadweep
B)
Bihar
C)
Assam
D)
Tamil Nadu
According to the 2011 Census of India, Lakshadweep has the highest percentage of Muslim population among all States and Union Territories, with Muslims constituting approximately 96.58% of its total population. Although Lakshadweep is a Union Territory, it is the correct answer among the given choices. Among the other options: Assam has a Muslim population of about 34.22% (the highest among the current states), Bihar has about 16.87%, and Tamil Nadu has about 5.86%.
Which of the following states has the literacy rate lower than the national average as per 2011 Census?
A)
Karnataka
B)
Kerala
C)
Andhra Pradesh
D)
Tamil Nadu
According to the 2011 Census of India, the national average literacy rate is 74.04%. Among the given options, Andhra Pradesh is the only state with a literacy rate lower than the national average, standing at 67.02%. The other states have literacy rates higher than the national average: Kerala has the highest at 94.00%, followed by Tamil Nadu at 80.09%, and Karnataka at 75.36%.
The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were made a part of the Preamble by:
A)
Constitution Forty-First Amendment Act, 1976
B)
Constitution Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
C)
Constitution Forty-Sixth Amendment Act, 1982
D)
Constitution Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976
The words 'socialist', 'secular', and 'integrity' were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, which is often referred to as the 'Mini-Constitution' due to the vast number of changes it introduced.
- Option 'a' (41st Amendment, 1976) is incorrect as it raised the retirement age of State Public Service Commission members from 60 to 62 years.
- Option 'b' (44th Amendment, 1978) is incorrect as it was enacted by the Janata Government to undo several distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment, particularly regarding emergency provisions and fundamental rights, but it did not remove these words from the Preamble.
- Option 'c' (46th Amendment, 1982) is incorrect as it primarily dealt with issues related to sales tax and indirect taxation.
Priority sector lending aims at providing credit to:
A)
Large industries
B)
Agriculture, MSMEs, and weaker sections
C)
Stock markets
D)
Multinational companies
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) is a mandate by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) requiring commercial banks to allocate a specified portion of their lending to sectors that impact large segments of the population, the weaker sections, and sectors which are employment-intensive. This includes Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Education, Housing, Export Credit, Renewables, and Weaker Sections. Large industries (Option a), Stock markets (Option c), and Multinational companies (Option d) do not fall under this category as they have access to diverse funding sources and do not require government-mandated credit support.
Terms of trade measure the relationship between:
A)
Imports and GDP
B)
Export prices and import prices
C)
Exports and GDP
D)
Balance of payments and trade
Terms of trade (TOT) is an economic metric defined as the ratio of a country's export prices to its import prices, calculated as: (Index of Export Prices / Index of Import Prices) * 100. It measures how many units of imports a country can purchase for every unit of exports it sells. Options 'a' and 'c' are incorrect because the relationship between imports/exports and GDP represents trade openness or the trade-to-GDP ratio. Option 'd' is incorrect because the Balance of Payments is a comprehensive record of all economic transactions between a country and the rest of the world, which is distinct from the price-ratio focus of the terms of trade.
Capital expenditure mainly leads to:
A)
Creation of assets
B)
Reduction in revenue
C)
Increase in consumption
D)
Inflation control only
Capital expenditure (CapEx) refers to the funds spent by a government or organization to acquire, construct, or upgrade physical assets such as infrastructure, machinery, and buildings. Therefore, its primary and direct outcome is the creation of assets that enhance the productive capacity of the economy.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because capital expenditure is an investment that can actually generate future revenue, rather than reducing it.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because revenue expenditure (like salaries and subsidies) is what directly drives consumption, whereas capital expenditure drives investment.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because controlling inflation is not the primary or sole objective of capital expenditure; its main goal is long-term economic growth.
The Mahalanobis strategy of planning emphasized:
A)
Agriculture-led growth
B)
Heavy industrialization
C)
Export-led growth
D)
Service sector dominance
The Mahalanobis strategy of planning, which formed the basis of India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), strongly emphasized rapid industrialization with a focus on heavy and basic industries (capital goods sector) to achieve long-term self-reliant economic growth. Option 'a' (Agriculture-led growth) was the focus of the First Five-Year Plan. Option 'c' (Export-led growth) was not favored, as the model leaned towards import substitution and self-sufficiency. Option 'd' (Service sector dominance) is incorrect because the service sector became a major driver of the Indian economy much later, post the 1991 economic reforms.
Liberalisation policies in India aimed to:
A)
Reduce foreign investment
B)
Expand public sector monopoly
C)
Control industrial growth
D)
Increase the role of the private sector
Liberalisation policies introduced in India in 1991 aimed to deregulate the economy, dismantle the 'License Raj', and reduce government intervention, thereby significantly increasing the role of the private sector in economic development. Option 'a' is incorrect because the policies aimed to encourage and increase foreign investment, not reduce it. Option 'b' is incorrect because liberalisation sought to end public sector monopolies by opening up various industries to private players. Option 'c' is incorrect because the objective was to stimulate and accelerate industrial growth by removing restrictive barriers, rather than controlling it.
Consolidation of land holdings helps to:
A)
Increase fragmentation
B)
Reduce soil fertility
C)
Improve efficiency and reduce boundary disputes
D)
Increase tenancy
Consolidation of land holdings refers to the practice of merging scattered, small plots of land into a single, compact farm. This process significantly improves agricultural efficiency by allowing the use of modern machinery, better irrigation management, and easier supervision. It also reduces the number of shared borders, thereby minimizing boundary disputes among farmers. Option 'a' is incorrect because consolidation reduces fragmentation rather than increasing it. Option 'b' is incorrect because consolidation does not reduce soil fertility. Option 'd' is incorrect because consolidation is aimed at improving operational efficiency for landholders and does not inherently increase tenancy.
Who among the following is known as the ‘Architect of Indian Planning’ for his contribution to the Second Five Year Plan strategy?
A)
V.K.R.V. Rao
B)
Dadabhai Naoroji
C)
P.C. Mahalanobis
D)
Amartya Sen
Prasanta Chandra (P.C.) Mahalanobis is widely regarded as the 'Architect of Indian Planning'. He formulated the strategy for the Second Five Year Plan (1956–1961), which focused on rapid industrialization and the development of basic and heavy industries (known as the Mahalanobis Model).
- **V.K.R.V. Rao (Option a):** He was a prominent Indian economist known for being the first to apply scientific methods to estimate India's national income, but he was not the architect of the Second Plan.
- **Dadabhai Naoroji (Option b):** Known as the 'Grand Old Man of India', he was the first to estimate national income during the British era and proposed the 'Drain of Wealth' theory.
- **Amartya Sen (Option d):** He is a Nobel laureate economist famous for his contributions to welfare economics, social choice theory, and human development, long after the early Five-Year Plans.
Under the ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)’, who are the targeted beneficiaries?
A)
All families below the poverty line (BPL).
B)
The poorest of the poor among the BPL families.
C)
Only senior citizens.
D)
Families affected by natural calamities.
1. **Why Option 'b' is correct**: The Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) was launched in December 2000 to target the 'poorest of the poor' among the Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. It aims to provide highly subsidized food grains (such as wheat and rice) to ensure food security for this highly vulnerable segment.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option 'a'** is incorrect because AAY does not cover all BPL families; it specifically targets only the poorest tier within the BPL category.
- **Option 'c'** is incorrect because the scheme is not restricted only to senior citizens, though destitute senior citizens may be included under its criteria.
- **Option 'd'** is incorrect because AAY is a permanent social welfare scheme for the poorest of the poor, rather than a temporary relief scheme for victims of natural calamities.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
A)
DPSPs cannot be enforced automatically and require legislation for implementation
B)
DPSPs are non-justiciable in nature
C)
DPSPs aim to enforce political democracy in the country
D)
DPSPs are mentioned in part IV of the Constitution
Statement 'c' is incorrect because the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) aim to establish social and economic democracy in the country, not political democracy. Political democracy is established and secured by the Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution).
- Option 'a' is a correct statement: DPSPs are not self-executing and require specific laws/legislation enacted by the government to be implemented.
- Option 'b' is a correct statement: DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be legally enforced by courts of law if violated.
- Option 'd' is a correct statement: DPSPs are indeed enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
Guru Ghasidas is one of the largest National Parks in India and is located in the state of:
A)
Gujarat
B)
Uttarakhand
C)
Chhattisgarh
D)
Andhra Pradesh
Guru Ghasidas National Park is located in the state of Chhattisgarh (specifically in the Koriya, Manendragarh-Chirmiri-Bharatpur, and Surajpur districts). It was formerly part of the Sanjay National Park before Chhattisgarh was separated from Madhya Pradesh.
Why other options are incorrect:
- (a) Gujarat: Known for national parks like Gir National Park and Blackbuck National Park.
- (b) Uttarakhand: Famous for Jim Corbett National Park, Valley of Flowers, and Nanda Devi National Park.
- (d) Andhra Pradesh: Home to Papikonda National Park and Sri Venkateswara National Park.
Which one is the least urbanised among the following states of India?
A)
Chhattisgarh
B)
Jharkhand
C)
Odisha
D)
Rajasthan
According to the 2011 Census of India, the urbanization rates (percentage of urban population to the total population) of the given states are as follows: Odisha has the lowest urbanization rate at approximately 16.68%. In comparison, Chhattisgarh has an urbanization rate of 23.24%, Jharkhand has 24.05%, and Rajasthan has 24.87%. Therefore, Odisha is the least urbanised state among the options provided.
Which of the following is not correct about Act East Policy?
A)
India’s Act East Policy was unveiled by the Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi at 12th ASEAN-India Summit in 2014 held in Myanmar.
B)
Act East Policy is the predecessor of Look East Policy.
C)
The Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative.
D)
The objective of ‘Act East Policy’ is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and development strategic relationship with countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
The statement in option 'b' is incorrect because the 'Look East Policy' (launched in 1991) is the predecessor of the 'Act East Policy' (launched in 2014), making the Act East Policy the successor, not the predecessor.
Why other options are correct statements:
- Option 'a' is correct: Prime Minister Narendra Modi formally launched the Act East Policy at the 12th ASEAN-India Summit in Myanmar in November 2014.
- Option 'c' is correct: The policy (originating from the Look East Policy of 1991) was originally conceived primarily as an economic initiative to integrate India with the high-growth East Asian economies.
- Option 'd' is correct: The core objective of the Act East Policy is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties, and develop strategic relationships with countries in the Asia-Pacific region through proactive engagement.
In the context of Indian Industry, what does the term ‘Navratna’ refer to?
A)
Nine strategic industries reserved for the public sector.
B)
Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) given greater managerial and operational autonomy.
C)
Nine private companies that export the most.
D)
The nine jewels of Akbar’s court applied to modern banking.
The correct option is 'b'. The term 'Navratna' refers to a group of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India that have been granted greater financial, managerial, and operational autonomy by the government to help them compete globally. Originally introduced in 1997 with nine enterprises, the status allows these companies to make significant investment decisions without prior government approval. Option 'a' is incorrect because strategic industries reserved for the public sector are classified differently. Option 'c' is incorrect because the status is exclusive to public sector enterprises, not private companies. Option 'd' is incorrect because, although the name is inspired by Akbar's court, the concept is applied to public sector industries rather than modern banking.
With reference to Poverty Estimation in India, the Planning Commission accepted the calorie norm of:
A)
2100 calories for rural and 2400 calories for urban areas.
B)
2400 calories for rural and 2100 calories for urban areas.
C)
2200 calories for both rural and urban areas.
D)
1800 calories for rural and 2200 calories for urban areas.
The Planning Commission of India, based on the recommendations of the Y.K. Alagh Committee (1979), accepted the nutritional requirement of 2400 calories per capita per day for rural areas and 2100 calories per capita per day for urban areas. The higher calorie norm for rural areas is justified by the greater amount of physical labor involved in rural occupations like agriculture. Option 'a' is incorrect because it swaps the rural and urban calorie requirements. Options 'c' and 'd' are incorrect because they state incorrect calorie figures that do not align with the official norms adopted by the Planning Commission.
A person can directly move to the Supreme Court in case of any violation of Fundamental Rights. Which Article allows for this?
A)
Article 31
B)
Article 32
C)
Article 29
D)
Article 30
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution (Right to Constitutional Remedies) allows an individual to directly approach the Supreme Court of India for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights in case of any violation. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously referred to Article 32 as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. Other options are incorrect because: Article 31 originally dealt with the Right to Property (repealed by the 44th Amendment); Article 29 protects the interests of minorities regarding language, script, and culture; and Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
The oldest fold mountain in India is:
A)
Cardamom Hills
B)
Aravallis
C)
Nilgiri Hills
D)
Rajmahal Hills
The Aravalli Range is the oldest fold mountain system in India, and one of the oldest in the world, dating back to the Precambrian era (around 370 to 570 million years ago). Over time, weathering and erosion have reduced them to residual hills. In contrast, the Cardamom Hills and Nilgiri Hills are part of the Western Ghats, which are relatively younger block mountains formed during the Mesozoic/Cenozoic eras. The Rajmahal Hills are volcanic hills formed during the Jurassic period, making them much younger than the Aravallis.
Disinvestment refers to:
A)
Increase in subsidies
B)
Closure of private firms
C)
Nationalization of industries
D)
Sale of government equity in public enterprises
Disinvestment refers to the action of an organization or government selling or liquidating an asset or subsidiary. In the context of public finance, it specifically means the sale of government equity in public sector enterprises (PSUs) to private investors or the general public to raise revenue and improve efficiency.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because increasing subsidies is a fiscal expenditure, not an asset sale.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because the closure of private firms is a private business decision and does not involve government equity.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because nationalization is the exact opposite of disinvestment, where the government takes control of private assets.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the ‘Public Distribution System (PDS)’ mechanism?
A)
Procurement of food grains at Minimum Support Price (MSP).
B)
Storage of food grains as Buffer Stock by FCI.
C)
Selling food grains at market prices to maximise profits.
D)
Distribution of food grains through Fair Price Shops at Issue Price.
The Public Distribution System (PDS) is a government-run food security system designed to provide essential food grains to vulnerable sections of society at highly subsidized rates (known as the Central Issue Price). It is a social welfare initiative, not a commercial enterprise, meaning that 'selling food grains at market prices to maximise profits' is NOT a feature of the PDS.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because procurement of food grains from farmers at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a fundamental initial step of the PDS mechanism.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because storing the procured grains as a buffer stock by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) is essential for maintaining food security and managing supply shocks.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because the actual distribution of these grains to the public is carried out through a network of Fair Price Shops (ration shops) at the government-determined Issue Price.
What is contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A)
Forms of Oath or Affirmation
B)
Languages recognised by the Constitution
C)
Laws that cannot be challenged in any Court of Law
D)
Provision regarding disqualification of the grounds of defection
The 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the grounds of defection. It is popularly known as the Anti-Defection Law and was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because the Forms of Oath or Affirmation are contained in the 3rd Schedule.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because the languages recognised by the Constitution are listed in the 8th Schedule.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because the 9th Schedule contains acts and regulations (originally designed to protect certain laws from judicial scrutiny).