← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions — 2026
The Competition Act replaced the:
A)
FEMA
B)
FERA
C)
MRTP Act
D)
SEBI Act
The Competition Act, 2002 was enacted to promote and sustain competition in markets, protect the interests of consumers, and ensure freedom of trade in India. It officially replaced the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969, which was considered outdated in the post-economic liberalization era. Among the incorrect options: FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999) replaced FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973) to facilitate external trade and payments, while the SEBI Act, 1992 was established to regulate the securities market and remains active.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A)
Gujarat has the longest coastline in India
B)
Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal in India
C)
Kovalam is the longest sea-beach in India
D)
Deccan Plateau is the largest plateau of India
The statement in option 'c' is incorrect because Marina Beach in Chennai (Tamil Nadu) is the longest natural urban beach in India (and the second longest in the world), not Kovalam Beach. Therefore, 'c' is the correct answer to this question.
Why other options are incorrect (as they are true statements):
- Option 'a': Gujarat indeed has the longest coastline in India, stretching about 1,214.7 km.
- Option 'b': The Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal in India, with a total length of about 650 km.
- Option 'd': The Deccan Plateau is the largest plateau in India, covering an area of about 500,000 square km across eight Indian states.
Consider the following statements: 1. The term of office of the Prime Minister of India is fixed at 5 years 2. No one under 30 years can become the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given is/are correct?
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 Nor 2
1. **Statement 1 is incorrect**: The term of the Prime Minister of India is not constitutionally fixed. According to Article 75 of the Constitution, the Prime Minister holds office during the pleasure of the President. In practice, the Prime Minister remains in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha.
2. **Statement 2 is incorrect**: To become the Prime Minister, a person must be a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. The minimum age eligibility for the Lok Sabha is 25 years, while for the Rajya Sabha, it is 30 years. Therefore, a person who is 25 years old can become the Prime Minister of India if they are a member of the Lok Sabha.
Since both statements are incorrect, the correct option is 'd' (Neither 1 Nor 2).
Tertiary coal is found in:
A)
Western and south-western Tripura
B)
Senapati and Tamenglong district of Nagaland
C)
Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills of Meghalaya
D)
Kolasib and Mamit district of Mizoram
Tertiary coal deposits (belonging to the Eocene to Oligocene epoch) are primarily found in the northeastern states of India. In Meghalaya, significant deposits of Tertiary coal are located in the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia hills (such as in Cherrapunji, Bapung, and Darrangiri). Option a is incorrect because Tripura has only minor occurrences of low-grade lignite. Option b is incorrect because Senapati and Tamenglong are districts in Manipur, not Nagaland, and are not major coal-producing areas. Option d is incorrect because Kolasib and Mamit districts of Mizoram do not contain significant Tertiary coal deposits.
When the President of India does not take any action on a bill and keeps it for an indefinite period, it is called:
A)
Absolute veto
B)
Suspensive veto
C)
Pocket veto
D)
Qualified veto
The correct option is 'c' (Pocket veto).
1. **Why it is correct**: Under the 'Pocket veto', the President of India neither ratifies, rejects, nor returns the bill for reconsideration, but simply keeps the bill pending for an indefinite period. This is possible because the Constitution of India does not prescribe any time limit within which the President must take action on a bill presented for assent.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Absolute veto (a)**: This refers to the power of the President to withhold assent to a bill, which completely kills the bill.
- **Suspensive veto (b)**: This is exercised when the President returns a bill to the Parliament for reconsideration. If the Parliament passes the bill again with or without amendments, the President must give assent.
- **Qualified veto (d)**: This type of veto can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority. It is possessed by the US President but does not exist in the Indian constitutional system.
The net sown area in India is around _________ of the total geographical area.
A)
30%
B)
43%
C)
53%
D)
60%
The net sown area represents the total area sown with crops and orchards. In India, the net sown area is around 43% to 46% of the total geographical area, making '43%' (Option b) the most accurate choice among the options provided.
- **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option a (30%):** This is incorrect; about 30% of India's total land area consists of mountains.
- **Options c (53%) and d (60%):** These are incorrect as they overestimate the net sown area of the country, which has remained stable under 50% due to other land-use demands like forests, pastures, and non-agricultural uses.
Which of the following is a ‘Non-Tariff Barrier’?
A)
Import Duty
B)
Customs Tax
C)
Quantitative Restrictions (Quotas)
D)
Export Subsidy
Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs) refer to restrictions on imports or exports that are not in the form of a tax or tariff. Quantitative Restrictions (Quotas) limit the physical quantity of a commodity that can be imported into a country during a specified period, making it a classic example of a Non-Tariff Barrier. In contrast, Import Duty (a) and Customs Tax (b) are direct taxes levied on goods, which classify them as Tariff Barriers. Export Subsidies (d) are financial incentives provided by governments to boost domestic exports rather than restrictive import barriers.
Which State enjoys the distinction of being the first linguistic state of India ?
A)
West Bengal
B)
Andhra Pradesh
C)
Tamil Nadu
D)
Kerala
Andhra Pradesh (originally formed as Andhra State on October 1, 1953) was the first state in India to be created on a linguistic basis. It was carved out of the Telugu-speaking northern districts of Madras State following a prolonged agitation and the fast-unto-death of activist Potti Sreeramulu. Other options like West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala were either already existing or reorganized later under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, and thus do not hold the distinction of being the first linguistic state.
‘Casualisation of Workforce’ refers to a situation where:
A)
The percentage of self-employed workers increases.
B)
The percentage of casually hired workers in the total workforce increases over time.
C)
Workers move from the informal sector to the formal sector.
D)
The workforce shifts entirely from agriculture to industry.
1. **Why Option 'b' is correct**: 'Casualisation of workforce' is defined as a process where the proportion of casually hired workers (daily wage laborers who do not have regular job security or social security benefits) in the total workforce increases over time. This reflects a shift from regular salaried or self-employed jobs to casual employment.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option 'a'** describes an increase in self-employment, which is a distinct category of employment status, not casualisation.
- **Option 'c'** describes 'formalisation' of the workforce, which is the opposite of casualisation, as casual workers are part of the informal sector.
- **Option 'd'** describes a structural shift or sectoral transition of the workforce (from agriculture to secondary/tertiary sectors), not casualisation.
Structural transformation in India involves:
A)
Shift from agriculture to industry and services
B)
Increase in subsistence farming
C)
Decline in industrial output
D)
Shift from services to agriculture
Structural transformation refers to the developmental process where an economy transitions from low-productivity, traditional sectors to high-productivity, modern sectors. In India, this involves a shift of labor and output from agriculture to industry and services. Option 'b' (increase in subsistence farming) and Option 'd' (shift from services to agriculture) represent economic regression rather than development. Option 'c' (decline in industrial output) is incorrect because structural transformation is characterized by an increase, not a decline, in industrial and service sector outputs.
The main objective of monetary policy is to:
A)
Increase government expenditure
B)
Reduce fiscal deficit
C)
Promote exports
D)
Control inflation and ensure price stability
The correct option is 'd'. The primary objective of monetary policy, which is formulated and implemented by a country's central bank (such as the Reserve Bank of India or the Federal Reserve), is to maintain price stability and control inflation while supporting economic growth.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Options 'a' and 'b' (Increase government expenditure and Reduce fiscal deficit) are key objectives of Fiscal Policy, which is managed by the government through taxation and public spending.
- Option 'c' (Promote exports) is a primary goal of trade and commercial policy, not the central focus of monetary policy.
The incidence of poverty refers to:
A)
Causes of poverty
B)
Depth of poverty
C)
Intensity of unemployment
D)
Proportion of population living below the poverty line
The incidence of poverty (often measured by the Headcount Ratio) refers to the proportion of the total population that lives below the poverty line. It indicates the percentage of people who are classified as poor. Option 'a' is incorrect because it refers to the determinants or reasons behind poverty. Option 'b' is incorrect because the depth of poverty refers to how far below the poverty line the poor actually fall (measured by the poverty gap). Option 'c' is incorrect as it relates to labor market statistics rather than the measurement of poverty.
According to Official Languages Act (1963) which language should be used for the purpose of communication between the Union and non-Hindi states?
A)
Any regional Language of the State
B)
English
C)
Any language specified by the Supreme Court
D)
None of the above
According to Section 3 of the Official Languages Act (1963), the English language shall be used for the purpose of communication between the Union (Central Government) and a State which has not adopted Hindi as its official language. Therefore, option 'b' is correct. Option 'a' is incorrect because regional languages are not designated for Union-State communication under this Act. Option 'c' is incorrect because the Supreme Court does not specify the language for such communication. Option 'd' is incorrect as 'b' is the correct choice.
Choose the right answer: (i) The Constitution of India grants and guarantees Fundamental Rights to its citizens. (ii) Part III of the Constitution deals with those rights, which are known as a Fundamental Right. (iii) There are Seven Fundamental Rights
A)
(i), (ii), (iii)
B)
(i), (ii)
C)
(ii), (iii)
D)
Neither (a) nor (b) nor (c)
Statement (i) is correct because the Constitution of India grants and guarantees Fundamental Rights to ensure the liberty and rights of its citizens. Statement (ii) is correct because Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12 to 35) specifically deals with these Fundamental Rights. Statement (iii) is incorrect because there are currently six Fundamental Rights, not seven. Originally, there were seven, but the Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 and made a legal right under Article 300A. Therefore, only statements (i) and (ii) are correct, making option (b) the right choice. Options (a) and (c) are incorrect as they include statement (iii), and option (d) is incorrect because option (b) is the correct answer.
What is ‘Zero hour’?
A)
When the proposals of the opposition are considered
B)
When matters of utmost importance are raised
C)
Interval between the morning and afternoon sessions
D)
When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha
Zero Hour is an informal parliamentary procedure in India that starts immediately after the Question Hour and lasts until the regular agenda of the day is taken up. During this time, Members of Parliament (MPs) can raise matters of urgent public importance without any prior notice. Option 'a' is incorrect because Zero Hour is open to all members, not just the opposition. Option 'c' is incorrect because it is an active session for raising issues, not a recess or lunch interval. Option 'd' is incorrect because Money Bills are introduced following standard legislative procedures, not during Zero Hour.
Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
A)
NITI Aayog
B)
Attorney-General of India
C)
Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG)
D)
Finance Commission
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is not a Constitutional Body. It is an extra-constitutional, non-statutory body established through an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. In contrast, the other options are Constitutional Bodies established under specific articles of the Constitution of India: the Attorney-General of India is under Article 76, the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) is under Article 148, and the Finance Commission is under Article 280.
Repo rate refers to the rate at which?
A)
Banks lend to RBI
B)
RBI lends short-term funds to banks
C)
Government borrows
D)
Public borrows from banks
Repo rate (Repurchase rate) is the key policy rate at which the central bank (RBI) lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities to manage liquidity in the banking system.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because the rate at which banks lend/park funds with the RBI is called the Reverse Repo Rate.
- Option 'c' is incorrect as government borrowing is determined by treasury bill yields and government bond coupon rates.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because the rate at which the public borrows from banks is known as the bank lending rate (e.g., MCLR, Base Rate, or external benchmark-linked rates).
Which of the following best describes the concept of ‘Marketed Surplus’ in the context of Indian Agriculture?
A)
The total agricultural produce harvested by a farmer in a given year.
B)
The portion of produce stored by the government as buffer stock.
C)
The portion of agricultural produce which is sold in the market by the farmers after retaining a part for self-consumption.
D)
The surplus produce exported to foreign nations after meeting domestic demand.
In Indian agriculture, 'Marketed Surplus' refers to the actual portion of agricultural produce that farmers sell in the market after retaining a sufficient amount for their own family consumption, seeds, feed, and other farm requirements.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because it describes the total agricultural output (gross produce) rather than the surplus.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because it describes the 'buffer stock' maintained by government agencies like the Food Corporation of India (FCI) for food security.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because it describes 'exportable surplus' at the national level, which is the surplus exported after meeting the entire country's domestic demand.
States covered by the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution are:
A)
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram
B)
Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Mizoram
C)
Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram
D)
Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Mizoram
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (often remembered by the acronym 'AMTM'). Therefore, option (a) is correct. Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect because neither Manipur nor Nagaland is covered under the Sixth Schedule; Nagaland has special provisions under Article 371A, and Manipur is not part of this schedule.
The Main Boundary Fault separates:
A)
The Karakoram from the Greater Himalayas
B)
The Greater Himalayas from the Himalayas
C)
The Lesser Himalayas from the Shiwalik
D)
The Shiwalik from the Great Plains of India
The Main Boundary Fault (MBF), also known as the Main Boundary Thrust (MBT), is a major tectonic fault in the Himalayas that separates the Lesser Himalayas from the Outer Himalayas (Shiwalik range).
- Option (a) is incorrect because the Indus-Tsangpo Suture Zone (ITSZ) separates the Trans-Himalayas (including Karakoram) from the Greater Himalayas.
- Option (b) is incorrect because the Main Central Thrust (MCT) separates the Greater Himalayas from the Lesser Himalayas.
- Option (d) is incorrect because the Himalayan Frontal Thrust (HFT) or Main Frontal Thrust (MFT) separates the Shiwalik from the Great Plains of India.
Who among the following is known as the Father of the Constitution of India?
A)
BR Ambedkar
B)
Rajendra Prasad
C)
Jawahar Lal Nehru
D)
Subhash Chandra Bose
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is known as the 'Father of the Constitution of India' because he served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, which was responsible for preparing the final draft of the Constitution. His pivotal role in shaping its provisions and advocating for social justice earned him this title. Among the other options: Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) was the President of the Constituent Assembly; Jawaharlal Nehru (c) was the first Prime Minister of India and introduced the 'Objective Resolution'; and Subhash Chandra Bose (d) was a prominent nationalist leader who led the Indian National Army but was not involved in the drafting of the Constitution.
Which of the following Standing Committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?
A)
Public Accounts Committee
B)
Estimates Committee
C)
Committee on Public Undertakings
D)
Committee on Government Assurances
The Estimates Committee is the largest standing committee of the Parliament of India. It consists of 30 members, all of whom are elected exclusively from the Lok Sabha (Lower House). The Rajya Sabha (Upper House) has no representation in this committee. In contrast, the Public Accounts Committee (Option a) and the Committee on Public Undertakings (Option c) both have 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha). The Committee on Government Assurances (Option d) exists separately for both Houses (15 members in Lok Sabha and 10 members in Rajya Sabha).
Judge of a High Court can be removed before the expiry of his term by:
A)
The President on the recommendation of the Supreme Court
B)
The Governor on the recommendation of the state legislature
C)
The President on the recommendation of the state legislature
D)
The President on the recommendation of the Parliament
According to Article 217(1)(b) read with Article 124(4) of the Constitution of India, a Judge of a High Court can be removed from office only by an order of the President. This order is issued after an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a special majority (a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting) in the same session, is presented to the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Therefore, option 'd' is correct. Options 'b' and 'c' are incorrect because the State Legislature and the Governor have no role in the removal of a High Court Judge. Option 'a' is incorrect because the Supreme Court does not make the recommendation for removal; that power lies solely with the Parliament.
Identify the correct chronological order of the following events in the Indian Economy: 1. Establishment of the Planning Commission. 2. Nationalisation of Commercial Banks. 3. Introduction of New Economic Policy (LPG). 4. Setting up of NITI Aayog.
A)
1, 3, 2, 4
B)
1, 2, 3, 4
C)
2, 1, 3, 4
D)
1, 2, 4, 3
The correct chronological order of the events is as follows:
1. Establishment of the Planning Commission: March 15, 1950.
2. Nationalisation of Commercial Banks: July 19, 1969 (when 14 major commercial banks were nationalised).
3. Introduction of New Economic Policy (LPG - Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation): July 24, 1991.
4. Setting up of NITI Aayog: January 1, 2015 (replacing the Planning Commission).
Therefore, the correct sequence is 1, 2, 3, 4, which corresponds to option 'b'. Other options present incorrect chronological sequences of these historic economic events.
Which of the following is correct about Fundamental Duties? (i) These are mentioned in Part-IV (A) of the Indian Constitution in the Article 51(A). (ii) They were taken from the Constitution of the USA. (iii) Fundamental Duties cannot be enforced by the courts. (iv) Not all citizens have the liberty to enjoy Fundamental Duties
A)
(i) & (ii)
B)
(i), (ii), (iii), ( iv)
C)
(i) & (iii)
D)
(i) & (iv)
Statement (i) is correct because the Fundamental Duties are indeed incorporated in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution under Article 51A, added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976. Statement (iii) is also correct because Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by the courts of law. Statement (ii) is incorrect because the Fundamental Duties were borrowed from the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR, not the USA. Statement (iv) is incorrect because Fundamental Duties are civic obligations applicable to all citizens of India, not rights or liberties to be 'enjoyed'. Therefore, only statements (i) and (iii) are correct, making option 'c' the correct choice.