← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions — 2026
Match the following: A. Constitution Fifty-Eighth Amendment Act, 1991. -> 1. Delhi to be called as National Capital Territory of Delhi. B. Constitution Sixty-First Amendment Act, 1988. -> 2. Reduced voting age from 21 years to 18 years. C. Constitution Sixty-Ninth Amendment Act, 1991. -> 3. An authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi. D. Constitution Seventy-First Amendment Act, 1992. -> 4. Included Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages in the Eight Schedule.
A)
3 2 1 4
B)
3 1 2 4
C)
2 1 2 4
D)
4 2 1 3
The correct matching is as follows:
- **A. Constitution Fifty-Eighth Amendment Act (1987/1991) -> 3. An authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi**: This amendment provided for an authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi and gave the same legal sanctity to the Hindi version.
- **B. Constitution Sixty-First Amendment Act, 1988 -> 2. Reduced voting age from 21 years to 18 years**: This amendment lowered the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
- **C. Constitution Sixty-Ninth Amendment Act, 1991 -> 1. Delhi to be called as National Capital Territory of Delhi**: This amendment accorded special status to the Union Territory of Delhi, designating it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and providing for a legislative assembly.
- **D. Constitution Seventy-First Amendment Act, 1992 -> 4. Included Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages in the Eighth Schedule**: This amendment added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali to the list of official languages in the Eighth Schedule.
This corresponds to the sequence **3 2 1 4**, which is option **a**. Other options are incorrect because they do not represent the correct pairings of these constitutional amendments.
Which of the following statements are correct? (i) By-Elections:- An election which is held out of normal schedule is called by-election. (ii) Mid-term Elections:- If the Lok Sabha or any of the state assemblies is dissolved before the expiry of its full term and elections are held to constitute a new house, it is called mid-term elections. (iii) General Elections:- A general election is a political voting election where generally all or most members of a given political body are chosen. (iv) Snap Poll:- A snap poll is an election that is called earlier than the one that has been scheduled. It can happen by dissolution of Lok Sabha before its full tenure.
A)
(i) only
B)
(i), (ii), (iii)
C)
All of the above
D)
(i) & (iv)
All the given statements are correct definitions of the respective election terms:
1. **By-Elections (i)**: These are held to fill a vacancy caused by the death, resignation, or disqualification of an incumbent member, which occurs outside the normal election schedule.
2. **Mid-term Elections (ii)**: These are conducted when the Lok Sabha or a State Legislative Assembly is dissolved before completing its full five-year term, requiring a new house to be constituted.
3. **General Elections (iii)**: These are regular elections held at the end of the full term of the legislative body to elect all or most of its members.
4. **Snap Poll (iv)**: This refers to an election called earlier than scheduled, often triggered by the premature dissolution of the legislature (such as the Lok Sabha) due to a loss of majority or political strategy.
Since all statements (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct, option 'c' (All of the above) is the correct choice. Options 'a', 'b', and 'd' are incorrect because they are incomplete.
With reference to the 1991 Economic Reforms, ‘Stabilisation Measures’ refer to:
A)
Long-term measures to improve the efficiency of the economy.
B)
Short-term measures to correct Balance of Payments and control inflation.
C)
Privatisation of all Public Sector Units.
D)
Removal of all trade barriers immediately.
The economic reform measures initiated in 1991 in India are broadly classified into two groups: Stabilisation Measures and Structural Reform Measures.
1. **Why Option B is correct:** Stabilisation measures are short-term policy initiatives intended to correct the weaknesses that had developed in the Balance of Payments (BoP) and to bring inflation under control. They aimed to maintain sufficient foreign exchange reserves and keep prices from rising.
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option A** describes 'Structural Reform Measures', which are long-term policies aimed at improving the efficiency of the economy and increasing its international competitiveness by removing rigidities in various sectors.
- **Options C and D** represent specific components of structural reforms (Privatisation and Liberalisation). Moreover, India did not privatise 'all' PSUs nor did it remove 'all' trade barriers 'immediately'; these reforms were phased and gradual.
The first women Governor of a State in free India was:
A)
Sarojini Naidu
B)
Najma Heptullah
C)
Sucheta Kripalani
D)
Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor of a State in free India. She served as the Governor of the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh) from 15 August 1947 until her death on 2 March 1949.
- **Option b (Najma Heptullah):** She served as the Governor of Manipur much later (2016–2021) and was the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- **Option c (Sucheta Kripalani):** She was India's first woman Chief Minister (of Uttar Pradesh), not a Governor.
- **Option d (Vijaya Laxmi Pandit):** She was a prominent diplomat and the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly; she also served as the Governor of Maharashtra later in her career, but was not the first.
Who acts as the President of India, when neither the President nor the Vice President is available?
A)
Seniormost Governor of a State
B)
Chief Justice of India
C)
Dy Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D)
CAG of India
According to the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969, if the offices of both the President and the Vice-President of India fall vacant simultaneously, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) discharges the functions of the President. If the CJI is also unavailable, the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court of India acts as the President. Other options are incorrect because: (a) Governors hold executive power only at the state level; (c) the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha has no constitutional role in presidential succession; and (d) the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is an auditing authority and is not part of the executive line of succession.
What is the minimum age to qualify for Lok Sabha elections?
A)
25 years
B)
30 years
C)
21 years
D)
18 years
According to Article 84(b) of the Constitution of India, the minimum age for a person to qualify for Lok Sabha (the Lower House of Parliament) elections is 25 years.
- Option 'b' (30 years) is incorrect because this is the minimum age required to qualify for Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament) elections.
- Option 'c' (21 years) is incorrect because this is the minimum age required to contest local body elections (Panchayats and Municipalities).
- Option 'd' (18 years) is incorrect because this is the minimum voting age in India, not the age to contest elections.
Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?
A)
Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
B)
West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
C)
Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
D)
State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)
The correct option is 'a' (Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab, 1967). In this landmark judgment, an eleven-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India ruled that Parliament cannot amend or abridge the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution.
Why other options are incorrect:
- **West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963):** This case primarily dealt with the nature of Indian federalism and the power of the Parliament to acquire land vested in the State.
- **Sharma vs. Krishna (1959):** This case focused on the relationship and conflict between legislative privileges (Article 194) and the freedom of speech and expression.
- **State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951):** This case dealt with the constitutional validity of the Bombay Prohibition Act and the extent of reasonable restrictions on the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property.
Who among the following hold office during the pleasure of the President?
A)
Governor of a State
B)
Prime Minister
C)
Chief Election Commissioner
D)
Speaker of Lok Sabha
1. **Governor of a State (Correct):** According to Article 156(1) of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State holds office during the pleasure of the President. They have no security of tenure and can be removed by the President at any time.
2. **Prime Minister (Incorrect):** Although Article 75(2) states that ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, the Prime Minister cannot be dismissed by the President as long as they enjoy the majority support in the Lok Sabha.
3. **Chief Election Commissioner (Incorrect):** Under Article 324(5), the Chief Election Commissioner has security of tenure and can only be removed from office in a manner similar to a Judge of the Supreme Court (i.e., through parliamentary impeachment).
4. **Speaker of Lok Sabha (Incorrect):** The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha and can be removed only by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha (Article 94), not at the pleasure of the President.
Which one of the following forests is the most dominant forest in India?
A)
Tropical Semi-Evergreen Forest
B)
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest
C)
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
D)
Tropical Deciduous Forest
Tropical Deciduous Forests (also known as Monsoon Forests) are the most dominant and widespread forest type in India, covering over 60% of the total forest area. They thrive in regions receiving rainfall between 70 cm and 200 cm. Other options are incorrect because:
- 'Tropical Wet Evergreen' (c) and 'Tropical Semi-Evergreen' (a) forests are restricted to high-rainfall areas like the Western Ghats and Northeast India.
- 'Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest' (b) is merely a sub-category of the broader 'Tropical Deciduous Forest' (d), which encompasses both moist and dry deciduous types.
Which of the following best defines ‘Worker-Population Ratio’?
A)
The number of people unemployed divided by total population.
B)
The number of persons employed per 100 persons in the population.
C)
The ratio of male workers to female workers.
D)
The ratio of workers in the industrial sector to those in agriculture.
The Worker-Population Ratio (WPR) is a key indicator used to analyze the employment situation in a country. It is defined as the percentage of the total population that is actively employed, which mathematically translates to the number of employed persons per 100 persons in the population. Option 'a' is incorrect because it refers to unemployment rather than employment. Options 'c' and 'd' are incorrect as they describe gender distribution among workers and sectoral employment ratios, respectively, rather than the overall worker-to-population relationship.
The members of which of the following can be appointed as ministers in State Government? 1. State Legislative Assembly 2. State Legislative Council 3. Panchayat 4. Municipality
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 1 & 2
C)
Only 1, 2 & 3
D)
All of the above
According to the Constitution of India (Article 164), a minister in a State Government must be a member of either the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) or the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad, in states where bicameralism exists). If a non-member is appointed as a minister, they must get elected to either of these two houses within six months. Members of Panchayats (3) and Municipalities (4) are part of local self-government bodies and cannot be appointed as ministers in the State Government by virtue of their local body membership. Therefore, only members of the State Legislative Assembly and State Legislative Council can be appointed as ministers.
Of the following Prime Ministers who did not face the Union Parliament even once?
A)
Lal Bahadur Shastri
B)
Charan Singh
C)
Morarji Desai
D)
VP Singh
Chaudhary Charan Singh (option b) served as the Prime Minister of India from 28 July 1979 to 14 January 1980. He resigned from his post after the Congress (I) withdrew its support just before he was scheduled to prove his majority in the Lok Sabha, making him the only Indian Prime Minister who never faced the Parliament during his tenure. In contrast, Lal Bahadur Shastri (option a), Morarji Desai (option c), and V.P. Singh (option d) all actively attended and faced parliamentary sessions during their respective tenures as Prime Minister.
Choose the correct pair: (i) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18) (ii) Right to Freedom (Articles 29-30) (iii) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24) (iv) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
A)
(i), (ii), (iii)
B)
(ii), (iii), (iv)
C)
(i), (ii), ( iv)
D)
(i), (iii), (iv)
To determine the correct pairs, let's analyze each statement based on the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution:
1. **(i) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)** is correct.
2. **(ii) Right to Freedom (Articles 29-30)** is incorrect. The Right to Freedom is covered under Articles 19-22. Articles 29-30 actually guarantee 'Cultural and Educational Rights'.
3. **(iii) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)** is correct.
4. **(iv) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)** is correct.
Since pairs (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct, option 'd' is the correct choice. Options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect because they include the incorrect pair (ii).
The All-India Services are:
A)
Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Forest Service
B)
Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Foreign Service
C)
Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Revenue Service
D)
Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian Forest Service and Indian Revenue Service
Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, there are only three All-India Services (AIS): the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), the Indian Police Service (IPS), and the Indian Forest Service (IFoS). The Indian Forest Service was added as the third All-India Service in 1966. Other services like the Indian Foreign Service (IFS) and the Indian Revenue Service (IRS) are Central Services (Group A) and not All-India Services, which makes options b, c, and d incorrect. Officers of the All-India Services are recruited by the Centre but serve under both the Central and State governments.
Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?
A)
Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
B)
Uniform civil code for all citizens
C)
Separation of Judiciary from Executive
D)
Promotion of cottage industries
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are classified into three broad categories: Socialistic, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual. The 'Promotion of cottage industries' (Article 43) is based on Gandhian ideology, which emphasizes rural development, self-reliance, and decentralization. On the other hand, 'Equal pay for equal work' (Article 39) is a Socialistic principle, while 'Uniform civil code' (Article 44) and 'Separation of Judiciary from Executive' (Article 50) are Liberal-Intellectual principles.
What is the primary function of the ‘Reserve Bank of India (RBI)’?
A)
To provide loans directly to farmers and industrialists.
B)
To issue currency and control money supply.
C)
To collect taxes on behalf of the government.
D)
To manage the stock market operations.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of the country. Its primary functions include the sole authority to issue currency notes (except one-rupee notes and coins) and to regulate the money supply and credit in the economy through monetary policy instruments. Option 'a' is incorrect because the RBI does not provide loans directly to the public; this is done by commercial banks and specialized institutions like NABARD. Option 'c' is incorrect because tax collection is managed by the Ministry of Finance through the CBDT and CBIC. Option 'd' is incorrect because the stock market is regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President of India for a maximum period of?
A)
6 Months
B)
3 Months
C)
4 Months
D)
9 Months
According to Article 75(5) of the Constitution of India, a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister. Therefore, a person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister for a maximum period of 6 months, within which they must secure a seat in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. The other options (3 Months, 4 Months, and 9 Months) are incorrect as they do not align with this constitutional mandate.
With respect to the ‘Demographic Transition’ in India, the year 1921 is regarded as the ‘Year of Great Divide’ because:
A)
India’s population started declining after this year.
B)
Before this year, population growth was stagnant; after 1921, it began to rise consistently.
C)
The literacy rate crossed 50% for the first time.
D)
The mortality rate became higher than the birth rate permanently.
The year 1921 is known as the 'Year of Great Divide' in India's demographic history because it marks a transition from the first stage of demographic transition (characterized by high birth rates, high death rates, and stagnant population growth) to the second stage. Before 1921, India's population growth was sporadic, fluctuating, and even recorded a negative growth rate between 1911 and 1921 due to famines and epidemics like the influenza pandemic. After 1921, improvements in health and sanitation led to a decline in mortality rates while birth rates remained high, causing the population to grow consistently and rapidly.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because India's population began to rise consistently after 1921, rather than declining.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because the literacy rate in India in 1921 was extremely low (less than 10%) and did not cross the 50% mark until decades after independence.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because the mortality rate declined relative to the birth rate, which is the primary reason for the subsequent population growth.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Hazaribagh - Mica (b) Hutti - Gold (c) Jaduguda - Uranium (d) Zawar - Copper
A)
Hazaribagh - Mica
B)
Hutti - Gold
C)
Jaduguda - Uranium
D)
Zawar - Copper
Option (d) is not correctly matched because Zawar (located in Udaipur, Rajasthan) is famous for Zinc, Lead, and Silver mining, not Copper. Copper in Rajasthan is primarily mined in the Khetri region. The other options are correctly matched: (a) Hazaribagh in Jharkhand is a major hub for Mica mining; (b) Hutti in Karnataka is famous for its active Gold mines; and (c) Jaduguda in Jharkhand is home to India's first and most prominent Uranium mine.
Which one of the following is known as the Shrimp Capital of India?
A)
Chennai
B)
Machilipatnam
C)
Nellore
D)
Nagapattinam
Nellore, a city in Andhra Pradesh, is widely known as the 'Shrimp Capital of India' due to its highly successful aquaculture industry, particularly the extensive farming and export of high-quality shrimp and prawns. Chennai (a) is known as the 'Detroit of India' for its automobile industry. Machilipatnam (b) is famous for its Kalamkari art and historical port. Nagapattinam (d) is a coastal town in Tamil Nadu known for its harbor and pilgrimage centers, but not for being the shrimp capital.
Match the economic terms in Column I with their correct definitions in Column II: Column I: 1. Short-term measures to control inflation and correct the balance of payments. 2. Selling off part of the equity of Public Sector Enterprises to the public. 3. Long-term measures to improve the efficiency of the economy and international competitiveness. 4. Reduction in the value of domestic currency vis-à-vis foreign currency by the government. Column II: A. Structural Reform, B. Stabilisation Measures, C. Disinvestment, D. Devaluation
A)
A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
B)
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
C)
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
D)
A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
To find the correct match, let's analyze each term and its definition:
1. **Stabilisation Measures (B)** are short-term policies aimed at controlling inflation and correcting adverse balance of payments. Thus, **B matches with 1**.
2. **Disinvestment (C)** refers to the process of selling off a portion of the equity of Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) to the public or private sector. Thus, **C matches with 2**.
3. **Structural Reforms (A)** are long-term policies designed to improve the efficiency of the economy and increase international competitiveness. Thus, **A matches with 3**.
4. **Devaluation (D)** is the deliberate reduction in the value of a domestic currency relative to foreign currencies by the government. Thus, **D matches with 4**.
This gives us the combination **A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4**, which corresponds to option **b**.
- **Option a** is incorrect because it wrongly associates Structural Reforms (A) with short-term measures (1) and Stabilisation Measures (B) with long-term measures (3).
- **Option c** is incorrect because it wrongly matches Stabilisation Measures (B) with Disinvestment (2) and Disinvestment (C) with Stabilisation (1).
- **Option d** is incorrect because it wrongly matches Structural Reforms (A) with Devaluation (4) and Devaluation (D) with Structural Reforms (3).
Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B)
Jawaharlal Nehru
C)
M.A. Jinnah
D)
Lal Bahadur Shastri
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly of India on December 11, 1946, succeeding Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, who was the temporary President.
- **Option b (Jawaharlal Nehru):** He was a prominent member of the Assembly and moved the historic 'Objectives Resolution', but he was not the President.
- **Option c (M.A. Jinnah):** He was the leader of the Muslim League and went on to become the first Governor-General of Pakistan.
- **Option d (Lal Bahadur Shastri):** He was a key freedom fighter and later became the second Prime Minister of India, but he did not hold the post of President of the Constituent Assembly.
Which institution was established in 1982 as the apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system?
A)
SBI (State Bank of India)
B)
RRB (Regional Rural Bank)
C)
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
D)
RBI (Reserve Bank of India)
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established on July 12, 1982, on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee. It serves as the apex development bank in India, mandated with facilitating credit flow for promotion and development of agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts, and other rural crafts.
- SBI (State Bank of India) was established in 1955 and is a public sector commercial bank, not the apex body for rural financing.
- RBI (Reserve Bank of India) is India's central bank established in 1935; it transferred its organic agricultural credit functions to NABARD upon its creation.
- RRBs (Regional Rural Banks) were established starting in 1975 to provide credit to rural areas, but they operate at regional levels and are regulated/coordinated by NABARD.
Interest payments on public debt form part of:
A)
Revenue expenditure
B)
Capital expenditure
C)
Capital receipts
D)
Development expenditure
Interest payments on public debt are classified as Revenue Expenditure because they are recurring in nature and do not result in the creation of any physical or financial assets, nor do they reduce the liabilities of the government.
- **Capital expenditure (b)** is incorrect because it refers to spending that creates assets or reduces liabilities (such as the repayment of the principal amount of a loan, rather than the interest).
- **Capital receipts (c)** is incorrect because these are receipts/inflows of the government that either create liabilities or reduce assets (like market borrowings).
- **Development expenditure (d)** is incorrect because interest payments are classified as non-developmental expenditure, as they do not directly contribute to economic development or asset creation.
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced to:
A)
Promote exports
B)
Protect farmers from price fluctuations
C)
Control inflation
D)
Increase tax revenue
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a market intervention by the Government of India to safeguard agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. It is announced at the beginning of the sowing season to guarantee a floor price for crops, thereby protecting farmers from price fluctuations and market uncertainties. Option 'a' is incorrect because MSP is aimed at domestic price stabilization, not export promotion. Option 'c' is incorrect because MSP guarantees a minimum price which can sometimes push food prices up, rather than controlling inflation. Option 'd' is incorrect because MSP is a support mechanism involving government expenditure, not a tool to generate tax revenue.