Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
The Governor in the State possesses the following powers and functions
(i) Financial
(ii) Military
(iii) Judicial
(iv) Emergency
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(i) and (iii) only
C)
(ii) and (iv) only
D)
(iii) and (iv) only
The Governor of a State in India possesses Executive, Legislative, Financial, and Judicial powers, but does not possess Military or Emergency powers.
1. **Financial Powers (i)**: The Governor ensures that the Annual Financial Statement (State Budget) is laid before the State Legislature, and Money Bills can only be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with their prior recommendation.
2. **Judicial Powers (iii)**: The Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, and remissions of punishment, and is consulted by the President of India when appointing judges to the State High Court.
3. **Military (ii) and Emergency (iv) Powers**: These powers are exclusively vested in the President of India. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces (Military power) and has the authority to declare national, state, or financial emergencies (Emergency power). While a Governor can recommend the imposition of President's Rule in a state, the actual emergency power lies with the President.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Consider who coined the following slogans:
(i) I am a Hindu, a Muslim, a Parsi, but above all an Indian first – Dadabhai Naoroji
(ii) Do or Die – Mahatma Gandhi
(iii) Swaraj is my birth right, and I shall have it. – Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(iv) Satyameva Jayate – MN Roy
Select the correct slogans with persons using the codes given below:
A)
(i) and (ii) only
B)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
C)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
To determine the correct option, let's analyze each slogan and its association:
1. **Statement (i) is correct**: Dadabhai Naoroji, the 'Grand Old Man of India', famously emphasized national unity over religious identity by declaring, "Whether I am a Hindu, a Mohammedan, a Parsi, a Christian, or of any other creed, I am above all an Indian."
2. **Statement (ii) is correct**: Mahatma Gandhi gave the famous slogan "Do or Die" (Karo ya Maro) during his speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, marking the launch of the Quit India Movement in 1942.
3. **Statement (iii) is correct**: Bal Gangadhar Tilak, one of the prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement, coined the slogan "Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it" to advocate for self-rule.
4. **Statement (iv) is incorrect**: "Satyameva Jayate" (Truth alone triumphs) is an ancient Sanskrit mantra from the Mundaka Upanishad. It was popularized as a national slogan by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya in 1918, not by the communist leader M.N. Roy.
Since statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct, option 'b' is the correct choice. Options 'a', 'c', and 'd' are incorrect because they either omit correct statements or include the incorrect statement (iv).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
The idea of Gram Swaraj proposed by Mahatma Gandhi advocates for
A)
Centralization of power
B)
Self governance at the village level
C)
A capitalist economy
D)
Heavy industrialization
The correct option is 'b' because 'Gram Swaraj' literally translates to 'village self-rule'. Mahatma Gandhi envisioned a decentralized political and economic system where each village is a self-reliant, autonomous unit capable of managing its own affairs through self-governance.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option 'a' is incorrect because Gandhi strongly opposed the centralization of power, advocating instead for democratic decentralization.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because Gandhi favored cottage and village-scale industries over heavy, large-scale industrialization, which he believed would lead to mass unemployment and exploitation.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because Gandhi's economic vision was based on self-sufficiency, cooperation, and the principle of 'Trusteeship', rather than a competitive capitalist economy.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
The main objectives of NITI Aayog are:
(i) Cooperative federalism.
(ii) Formulation of plans at village level.
(iii) Economic policy that incorporates national security interests
(iv) Innovation and entrepreneurial support.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(i), (ii) and (iv) only
C)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
All four statements represent the core objectives of NITI Aayog:
1. **Cooperative Federalism (i):** To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives with the States, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.
2. **Village-level Planning (ii):** To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
3. **National Security and Economic Policy (iii):** To ensure that national security interests are incorporated into economic strategy and policy.
4. **Innovation and Entrepreneurial Support (iv):** To create a knowledge, innovation, and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts.
Since all statements (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct, option 'd' is the correct choice, while options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect as they are incomplete.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Fiscal policy in India comprises of the following components:
(i) Government receipts
(ii) Government expenditure
(iii) Public debt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i) only
B)
(ii) only
C)
(i) and (ii) only
D)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
Fiscal policy in India refers to the use of government spending, taxation, and borrowing to influence the country's economy. It comprises three main components:
1. **Government Receipts (i):** This includes both tax revenue (direct and indirect taxes) and non-tax revenue, which are crucial for funding public services.
2. **Government Expenditure (ii):** This refers to the spending by the government on developmental and non-developmental activities.
3. **Public Debt (iii):** When government expenditure exceeds its receipts, the government bridges the fiscal deficit through public borrowing (internal and external debt).
Since all three elements are integral instruments of fiscal policy, option 'd' is correct, while options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect as they are incomplete.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
With reference to the sectoral distribution of the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
(i) Animal husbandry is the primary sector.
(ii) Transportation is the secondary sector.
(iii) Construction is the secondary sector.
(iv) Financial service is the tertiary sector.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
C)
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
To determine the correct option, let's analyze each statement based on the sectoral classification of the Indian economy:
1. **Statement (i) is correct**: Animal husbandry, along with agriculture, forestry, and fishing, directly exploits natural resources and is classified under the **Primary Sector**.
2. **Statement (ii) is incorrect**: Transportation is a service that facilitates the movement of goods and people, which classifies it under the **Tertiary (Service) Sector**, not the secondary sector.
3. **Statement (iii) is correct**: Construction involves manufacturing and building infrastructure, which falls under the industrial or **Secondary Sector**.
4. **Statement (iv) is correct**: Financial services (like banking and insurance) provide intangible services to businesses and consumers, placing them in the **Tertiary Sector**.
Since statements (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct, option 'c' is the correct answer. Options 'a', 'b', and 'd' are incorrect because they include statement (ii).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Which of the following is not a feature of Indian democracy?
A)
It is the government of the people, by the people and for the people
B)
It guarantees rights
C)
It accommodates social distinction and diversities
D)
It provides reservation of women up to 33% at various levels
Option 'd' is the correct answer because it is not a feature of Indian democracy at all levels. While the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts guarantee 33% reservation for women in local self-government bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities), this reservation has historically not been implemented at other legislative levels, such as the State Legislative Assemblies or the Parliament (Lok Sabha). Therefore, claiming it provides reservation at 'various levels' is inaccurate.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because Indian democracy is indeed a government of, by, and for the people.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because the Indian Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights to all its citizens under Part III.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because Indian democracy successfully accommodates immense social, linguistic, and cultural diversities through its federal and secular structure.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
A condition which occurs due to deprivation from basic human needs like food, shelter based on minimum costs without considering social norms is called:
A)
Relative poverty
B)
Absolute poverty
C)
Situational poverty
D)
Generational poverty
Absolute poverty is a condition characterized by severe deprivation of basic human needs, such as food, safe drinking water, sanitation, health, and shelter. It is measured against a fixed, universal standard of minimum costs required for basic survival, without considering social norms or the average standard of living in a society. In contrast: 1) 'Relative poverty' is defined in relation to the economic status of other members of society and changes as the society becomes more prosperous. 2) 'Situational poverty' is a temporary poverty caused by a specific crisis or life event (e.g., illness, job loss). 3) 'Generational poverty' refers to poverty that is passed down from one generation to the next within a family.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Consider the following agricultural related revolutions in India:
(i) Green revolution – Agriculture (HYV) production
(ii) Yellow revolution – Oilseeds production
(iii) Round revolution – Potato production
(iv) Protein revolution – High agricultural production
Which of the revolutions given above are correct?
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
C)
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
All the given agricultural revolutions in India are correctly matched:
1. **Green Revolution (i)**: Launched in the mid-1960s, it focused on increasing agricultural production, especially wheat and rice, using High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.
2. **Yellow Revolution (ii)**: Launched in 1986-1987, it targeted self-reliance in oilseeds production (such as mustard, groundnut, and sesame).
3. **Round Revolution (iii)**: This refers to the initiative aimed at multiplying the production of potatoes in India.
4. **Protein Revolution (iv)**: Coined by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in the 2014 Union Budget, it refers to a technology-driven second Green Revolution aimed at achieving high agricultural production.
Since all four statements are correct, option 'd' is the right choice.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Who amongst the following elects the Vice-President of India?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Members of Lok Sabha
(ii) Members of Rajya Sabha
(iii) Members of Legislative Assemblies
(iv) Members of Legislative Councils
A)
(i) and (ii)
B)
(i) and (iii)
C)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
According to Article 66(1) of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament, which includes both elected and nominated members of the Lok Sabha (i) and the Rajya Sabha (ii). Members of the State Legislative Assemblies (iii) and State Legislative Councils (iv) do not participate in the election of the Vice-President (unlike the Presidential election where elected members of Legislative Assemblies do participate). Therefore, only statements (i) and (ii) are correct, making option 'a' the correct choice.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
A)
Mahatma Gandhi
B)
Rabindranath Tagore
C)
Shankaran Nair
D)
Jamnalal Bajaj
Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair resigned from the membership of the Viceroy’s Executive Council in 1919 as a direct protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the subsequent imposition of martial law in Punjab.
- Mahatma Gandhi (Option a) returned his Kaiser-i-Hind gold medal in protest.
- Rabindranath Tagore (Option b) renounced his Knighthood in protest against the massacre.
- Jamnalal Bajaj (Option d) surrendered his title of Rai Bahadur.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List-I (Revolution) List-II (Related with)
A. Golden Revolution 1. Oil seed production
B. Grey Revolution 2. Horticulture and Honey
C. Yellow Revolution 3. Petroleum production
D. Black Revolution 4. Fertilizers
A)
4 2 1 3
B)
2 3 4 1
C)
1 2 3 4
D)
2 4 1 3
To find the correct match, we can analyze each revolution:
1. **Golden Revolution (A)** is associated with the development of Horticulture and Honey production (matches with 2).
2. **Grey Revolution (B)** is associated with increased Fertilizer production (matches with 4).
3. **Yellow Revolution (C)** is associated with Oil seed production, particularly mustard and sesame (matches with 1).
4. **Black Revolution (D)** is associated with Petroleum production (matches with 3).
This gives the sequence **2 4 1 3**, which corresponds to option **d**. Other options are incorrect because they do not correctly pair these well-known agricultural and industrial revolutions with their respective sectors.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : During 2023-24, Singapore emerged as the largest source of FDI to India.
Reason (R) : The India-Mauritius Tax Treaty amendment has brought a major shift in countries as a major sources of FDI to India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
B)
(A) is false but (R) is true.
C)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
D)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
1. **Why the correct option is correct**:
- **Assertion (A) is true**: According to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) data for the financial year 2023-24, Singapore was the largest source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India, followed by Mauritius.
- **Reason (R) is true**: The amendment to the India-Mauritius Double Tax Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) plugged tax loopholes (such as treaty shopping and round-tripping) by taxing capital gains. This led to a major shift in FDI inflows away from Mauritius to other favorable jurisdictions, primarily Singapore.
- Since the tax treaty amendment is the primary reason behind the shift in FDI sources that enabled Singapore to overtake Mauritius as the top source, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option (a)** is incorrect because (R) directly explains the shift in FDI dynamics that led to the scenario described in (A).
- **Option (b)** is incorrect because Assertion (A) is factually correct.
- **Option (d)** is incorrect because Reason (R) is factually correct and explains the underlying cause of the assertion.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
The constitution of India came into force on:
A)
January 15, 1950
B)
January 18, 1950
C)
January 26, 1950
D)
January 30, 1950
The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950, which is celebrated annually as Republic Day. This date was specifically chosen to commemorate the 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) declaration by the Indian National Congress in 1930. Although the Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, it officially commenced on this day. The other dates (January 15, January 18, and January 30, 1950) have no historical relevance to the commencement of the Indian Constitution.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Which of the following Industrial Policies is considered as the ‘Economic Constitution of India’ or the ‘Bible of State Capitalism’?
A)
Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948
B)
Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956
C)
Industrial Policy Statement of 1969
D)
Industrial Policy Statement of 1973
The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 (IPR 1956) is widely referred to as the 'Economic Constitution of India' or the 'Bible of State Capitalism'. It shaped India's industrial structure by giving the public sector a dominant role (state capitalism) and classifying industries into three distinct categories (Schedules A, B, and C) to achieve a 'socialistic pattern of society'.
- Option a (1948) is incorrect because, while it was India's first industrial policy and introduced the mixed economy model, it is not known by these titles.
- Options c (1969) and d (1973) are incorrect as they were subsequent policy statements aimed at regulating monopolies and defining core industries, rather than establishing the foundational economic framework.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Which of the following movements aimed to secure temple entry for Dalits?
A)
The Kali Mandir Temple Entry Movement
B)
The Non-Cooperation Movement
C)
The Kalaram Temple Entry Movement
D)
The Janmabhoomi Temple Entry Movement
The Kalaram Temple Entry Movement was launched by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on March 2, 1930, at the Kalaram Temple in Nashik, Maharashtra. It was a historic satyagraha aimed at securing the right of temple entry and worship for Dalits, who were barred from entering Hindu temples due to caste discrimination. Option 'b' (Non-Cooperation Movement) was a nationwide anti-colonial movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 for self-rule (Swaraj). Options 'a' and 'd' are not historically recognized movements associated with the Dalit temple entry struggle.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
What fiscal policy response did the Government of India undertake in recent times in response to the aggravated global supply disruptions?
(i) Decreasing food and fertilizers subsidies.
(ii) Increasing taxes on fuel and imported products.
(iii) Reducing taxes on fuel and certain imported products.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
Only (iii)
B)
Only (i)
C)
Only (ii)
D)
None of the above.
In response to the global supply chain disruptions and rising inflation (particularly after the outbreak of the Russia-Ukraine conflict), the Government of India adopted targeted fiscal measures to cushion the domestic economy:
1. **Why (iii) is correct:** The government reduced central excise duties on petrol and diesel (in November 2021 and May 2022) to lower logistics and transport costs. Additionally, import duties on key raw materials (such as coking coal, ferronickel, and inputs for plastics) were reduced to ease domestic manufacturing costs.
2. **Why (i) is incorrect:** Instead of decreasing them, the government significantly *increased* food and fertilizer subsidies (e.g., extending the PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana and absorbing high global fertilizer prices) to protect consumers and farmers.
3. **Why (ii) is incorrect:** The government *reduced* rather than increased taxes on fuel and critical imported inputs to control inflationary pressures.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Consider the following phases of India’s Foreign Trade Policy:
(i) Phase I – Import restriction and import substitution
(ii) Phase II – Export promotion and import liberalization
(iii) Phase III – Outward oriented
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i) and (ii) only
B)
(i) and (iii) only
C)
(ii) and (iii) only
D)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
The correct option is (d) because all three statements accurately describe the distinct phases of India's Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) since independence:
1. **Phase I (1950 to mid-1970s) - Import restriction and import substitution:** This phase was characterized by an inward-looking strategy aimed at self-reliance, protecting domestic industries through high tariffs, quotas, and strict import licensing.
2. **Phase II (mid-1970s to 1980s) - Export promotion and import liberalization:** Recognizing the limitations of the inward-looking model, India introduced export promotion measures and selective liberalization of imports, especially for capital goods and raw materials needed for export production.
3. **Phase III (1991 onwards) - Outward oriented:** Following the 1991 economic reforms, India adopted an outward-oriented trade policy. This phase involved deep integration with the global economy, drastic reduction of customs duties, dismantling of quantitative restrictions, and promotion of foreign direct investment (FDI).
Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect because they omit one or more of these correct and well-established phases of India's trade policy evolution.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Who was the first Chairman of Planning Commission of India?
A)
Jawaharlal Nehru
B)
M. Visvesvaraya
C)
P.C. Mahalanobis
D)
John Mathai
The Planning Commission of India was established on March 15, 1950, with the Prime Minister of India serving as its ex-officio Chairman. Since Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of independent India, he became the first Chairman of the Planning Commission.
- **M. Visvesvaraya (Option b):** He was a legendary engineer and administrator who wrote the book 'Planned Economy for India' in 1934, proposing a ten-year plan, but was not the Chairman of the Commission.
- **P.C. Mahalanobis (Option c):** He was a renowned statistician and a key member of the Planning Commission who formulated the Mahalanobis model for the Second Five-Year Plan, but he was not the Chairman.
- **John Mathai (Option d):** He was India's first Railway Minister and later served as the Finance Minister, but did not head the Planning Commission.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Which of the following is the main feature of caste politics in India?
A)
Political parties forming alliances based on idealogy
B)
Political parties appealing to voters based on caste identities
C)
Political parties focusing on economic issues
D)
Political parties promoting particular religion
Option 'b' is correct because the central feature of caste politics in India is the mobilization of voters and the distribution of election tickets by political parties based on caste identities to secure specific 'caste vote banks'. Option 'a' is incorrect because alliances based on ideology represent ideological or coalition politics. Option 'c' is incorrect because focusing on economic issues represents development or class-based politics. Option 'd' is incorrect because promoting a particular religion is a feature of communal politics, not caste politics.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
From the geological history, two main structural divisions of India are:
A)
Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
B)
Himalayan mountain chain and Peninsular india
C)
Andes and Rockies
D)
Alpine and Himalayan
Geologically, India is divided into three major structural divisions: the Peninsular Block, the Himalayan (Extra-Peninsular) Mountain Chain, and the Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain. Option 'b' correctly identifies two of these primary divisions. Option 'a' is incorrect because the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal are water bodies, not geological land divisions. Option 'c' is incorrect as the Andes and Rockies are located in South and North America respectively. Option 'd' is incorrect because the Alpine mountain system is located in Europe.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
The urban centre with population more than one lakh is called
A)
Semi Town
B)
Town
C)
City
D)
Metropolitan City
According to the Census of India, urban centres are classified into different categories based on their population size. An urban centre with a population of 1,00,000 (one lakh) and above is classified as a Class I town, which is officially designated as a 'City'.
- 'Town' (Option b) refers to urban areas with a population of less than one lakh (typically between 5,000 and 99,999, categorized under Classes II to VI).
- 'Metropolitan City' (Option d) refers to cities with a population of 10 lakh (1 million) or more.
- 'Semi Town' (Option a) is not a standard classification used in official census terms.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
The current National Highway 06 (NH-06) passes through the following states:
(i) Arunachal Pradesh
(ii) Assam
(iii) Meghalaya
(iv) Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(ii) and (iii) only
C)
(iii) and (iv) only
D)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
National Highway 06 (NH-06) under the new numbering system connects the northeastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, and Mizoram. It starts from its junction with NH-27 near Jorabat in Meghalaya, passes through Shillong and Jowai (Meghalaya), enters Assam at Badarpur and Silchar, and then goes into Mizoram passing through Kolasib and Aizawl before terminating at Selling. It does not pass through Arunachal Pradesh. Therefore, statements (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct, making option (d) the correct answer.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
Which state is the first state to establish the democratic decentralization came to be known as Panchayati Raj?
A)
Andhra Pradesh
B)
Rajasthan
C)
Gujarat
D)
Madhya Pradesh
Rajasthan was the first state in India to establish the Panchayati Raj system (democratic decentralization). It was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district. Andhra Pradesh (option a) was the second state to implement the system, launching it on November 1, 1959. Gujarat (option c) and Madhya Pradesh (option d) adopted the Panchayati Raj system at later stages.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2025 • General Studies Paper-II
What was the main objective of Nehru’s ‘Socialist pattern of Society’?
A)
Privatization of Industries
B)
Establishment of a welfare state
C)
Liberalization of Foreign Trade
D)
Expansion of heavy industries
The 'Socialist pattern of society' was officially adopted as the goal of economic policy at the Avadi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1955 under Jawaharlal Nehru. Its primary objective was the establishment of a welfare state where the state plays a key role in protecting and promoting the economic and social well-being of its citizens, reducing inequalities, and ensuring equitable distribution of wealth.
* **Why other options are incorrect:**
* **a (Privatization of Industries):** This is incorrect because Nehru's model emphasized state control and the dominance of the public sector over key industries, rather than privatization.
* **c (Liberalization of Foreign Trade):** This is incorrect because India followed a highly protectionist, import-substitution policy during Nehru's era. Liberalization was only introduced in 1991.
* **d (Expansion of heavy industries):** While the expansion of heavy industries was a major strategy under the Second Five-Year Plan (Mahalanobis model) to achieve industrial self-reliance, it was a means to an end. The ultimate socio-economic objective of the 'Socialist pattern' was the broader creation of a welfare state.