← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
Which among the following is core method of stabilizing the markets under the Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS)?
A)
Issuing Treasury Bills and/or dated securities
B)
Purchasing Treasury Bills and/or dated securities
C)
Conducting Open Market Operations
D)
All the above
The Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) is a monetary policy intervention by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to withdraw excess liquidity from the system. Under this scheme, the RBI stabilizes the market by issuing Treasury Bills and/or dated government securities to absorb surplus liquidity arising from large capital inflows. Option 'b' is incorrect because purchasing securities would inject liquidity into the market, which defeats the purpose of MSS. Option 'c' is incorrect because Open Market Operations (OMOs) are a general, standard tool for liquidity management, whereas MSS is a specific scheme where the proceeds are held in a separate, non-usable account with the RBI.
A party is recognized as a state party in a state if: (i) It secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the legislative Assembly of the state concerned (ii) It secures 4% of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election of the Lok Sabha from the state concerned (iii) It wins 3% of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to the legislative Assembly of the state concerned (iv) It wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
C)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
To be recognized as a State Party in India, a political party must fulfill any of the conditions laid down by the Election Commission of India:
1. **Statement (i) is correct**: The party must secure at least 6% of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election to the Legislative Assembly, and in addition, win at least 2 seats in that Assembly.
2. **Statement (ii) is incorrect**: The actual requirement is securing at least **6%** (not 4%) of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election to the Lok Sabha, and in addition, winning at least 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from that State.
3. **Statement (iii) is correct**: The party must win at least 3% of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State, or 3 seats in the Assembly, whichever is more.
4. **Statement (iv) is correct**: The party must win at least 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to that State.
Since statement (ii) is incorrect, options (a), (c), and (d) are eliminated, leaving (b) as the correct choice.
Article 3 of the Indian constitution authorizes the Parliament to: (i) Alter the name of any state (ii) Increase the area of any state (iii) Diminish the area of any state (iv) Alter the boundaries of any state Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
1, 2, and 3 only
B)
1, 3 and 4 only
C)
1 and 4 only
D)
1, 2, 3 and 4
Article 3 of the Constitution of India authorizes the Parliament to form new States and alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States. Specifically, it allows Parliament to: (i) alter the name of any state, (ii) increase the area of any state, (iii) diminish the area of any state, and (iv) alter the boundaries of any state. Since all four statements are correct, option 'd' (1, 2, 3 and 4) is the correct answer. Options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect because they are incomplete and omit one or more of these constitutionally authorized powers.
The Mountbatten Plan became the basis for:
A)
Continuity of British rule.
B)
Transfer of power.
C)
Partition of the country.
D)
Solution of communal problems.
The Mountbatten Plan, announced on June 3, 1947, by Lord Mountbatten (the last Viceroy of India), laid down the detailed blueprint for the partition of British India into two independent dominions: India and Pakistan. Therefore, it directly became the basis for the partition of the country.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because the plan marked the end of British rule, not its continuity.
- Option 'b' is partially related as power was transferred, but the defining and primary basis of the Mountbatten Plan was the partition itself.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because the plan did not solve communal problems; rather, it accepted partition as a tragic necessity due to the failure to resolve those communal differences.
Study the statements given below in terms of rural and urban settlements: (i) The size of the settlement is small. (ii) The settlement generally provides manufactured goods and services. (iii) The density of the population is high. (iv) People are less mobile and therefore, social relations among dwellers are intimate. Choose the correct statements from the obove statements for rural settlements:
A)
(i) and (iii)
B)
(ii) and (iv)
C)
(i) and (iv)
D)
(ii) and (iii)
To identify the correct statements for rural settlements, we analyze each statement:
1. **Statement (i)**: 'The size of the settlement is small.' This is a defining characteristic of rural settlements, which have smaller populations and land areas compared to urban areas.
2. **Statement (ii)**: 'The settlement generally provides manufactured goods and services.' This describes urban settlements, which are centers of secondary (manufacturing) and tertiary (services) economic activities.
3. **Statement (iii)**: 'The density of the population is high.' This is characteristic of urban settlements, whereas rural settlements have low population density.
4. **Statement (iv)**: 'People are less mobile and therefore, social relations among dwellers are intimate.' This is true for rural settlements, where community life is close-knit and social relations are deeply personal and informal.
Since statements (i) and (iv) correctly describe rural settlements, option 'c' is the correct choice. Options 'a', 'b', and 'd' are incorrect because they include statements (ii) or (iii), which are characteristic of urban settlements.
A person to be eligible for election as President of India should fulfill the following qualifications: (i) He should be a citizen of India. (ii) He should have completed 35 years of age. (iii) He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha. (iv) He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or any state government or any local authority or any other public authority. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i) and (ii) only
B)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
C)
(i), (ii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
According to Article 58 of the Constitution of India, the qualifications for a person to be eligible for election as President are: (i) He must be a citizen of India, (ii) He must have completed the age of 35 years, and (iii) He must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha (House of the People). Additionally, under Article 58(2), he should not hold any office of profit under the Government of India, or the Government of any State, or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments.
- Statement (iii) is incorrect because the candidate must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha (qualification for Rajya Sabha is required for the Vice-President of India under Article 66).
- Since statement (iii) is incorrect, options (b) and (d) are eliminated. Option (a) is incomplete because statement (iv) is also a valid qualification. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following is not a level in the three-tier Panchayati Raj recommended by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?
A)
Panchayat Samiti
B)
Gram Panchayat
C)
Zilla Panchayat
D)
Nyaya Panchayat
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system to democratize and decentralize local administration in India. The three recommended tiers are: 1. Gram Panchayat at the village level, 2. Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and 3. Zilla Parishad (Zilla Panchayat) at the district level. Nyaya Panchayat, which functions as a judicial organ at the local level, was not recommended as one of the tiers in this three-tier structure by the committee. Therefore, options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect as they represent the actual three tiers recommended by the committee.
Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme for land reforms in India is a scheme where the Central Government provides
A)
50% funding
B)
75% funding
C)
90% funding
D)
100% funding
The Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP), previously known as the National Land Records Modernization Programme (NLRMP), was revamped and made a Central Sector Scheme with effect from April 1, 2016. Under this revamped structure, the Central Government provides 100% funding for all components of the programme. Therefore, options a, b, and c are incorrect as there is no cost-sharing ratio (such as 50%, 75%, or 90%) between the Centre and the States for this scheme.
The growth of India’s real GDP during the year 2024 – 2025 is estimated at
A)
6.2%
B)
6.5%
C)
6.7%
D)
6.9%
According to the Economic Survey of India 2023-24, presented in Parliament in July 2024, India's real GDP growth for the financial year 2024-25 (FY25) is projected to be in the range of 6.5% to 7.0%, with 6.5% serving as the conservative baseline estimate. Therefore, option (b) is the correct choice. Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect as they do not align with the official baseline projection of 6.5% set by the Economic Survey.
Which of the following is/are the characteristic/s of Indian coal? (i) High ash content. (ii) Low sulphur content. (iii) Low ash fusion content. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A)
(i) and (ii)
B)
(ii) only
C)
(i) and (iii)
D)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
Indian coal is characterized by the following features:
1. **High Ash Content (Statement i is correct):** Indian coal has a very high ash content, typically ranging from 35% to 45%, compared to imported coal which usually has an ash content of 10% to 15%.
2. **Low Sulphur Content (Statement ii is correct):** Indian coal generally has a low sulphur content (usually less than 0.5%), which is environmentally advantageous as it reduces sulphur dioxide (SOx) emissions during combustion.
3. **High Ash Fusion Temperature (Statement iii is incorrect):** Indian coal has a high ash fusion temperature (typically above 1200°C to 1500°C), meaning the ash does not melt easily. Therefore, the statement 'low ash fusion content/temperature' is incorrect.
Since statements (i) and (ii) are correct and (iii) is incorrect, option 'a' is the correct choice.
Which of the following was introduced to tackle regional imbalances in India during the Five Year Plans?
A)
Minimum Support Price
B)
Backward Regions Grant Fund
C)
National Food Security Act
D)
Make in India Initiative
The Backward Regions Grant Fund (BRGF) was launched in 2006-07 (during the Tenth/Eleventh Five Year Plan period) specifically to redress regional imbalances in development by providing financial resources to catalyze development in identified backward districts.
- Option 'a' (Minimum Support Price) was introduced in 1966-67 to incentivize agricultural production and ensure food security, not to address regional imbalances.
- Option 'c' (National Food Security Act) was enacted in 2013 to provide subsidized food grains to ensure food and nutritional security to the population.
- Option 'd' (Make in India Initiative) was launched in 2014 to transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub.
Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi?
A)
Rabindranath Tagore
B)
N.G. Ranga
C)
Rajkumar Shukla
D)
Rajendra Prasad
N.G. Ranga opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi as he had differences with Gandhi's leadership and methods during this movement. On the other hand:
- Rabindranath Tagore (Option a) supported Gandhi and actually bestowed the title of 'Mahatma' upon him during the Champaran Satyagraha.
- Rajkumar Shukla (Option c) was the local peasant leader who actively persuaded Gandhi to visit Champaran to address the grievances of the indigo farmers.
- Rajendra Prasad (Option d) was one of the prominent leaders who actively supported and assisted Gandhi during the Satyagraha.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : There is a positive relationship between Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian States. Reason (R) : The underlying dimension of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
B)
(A) is false but (R) is true.
C)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
D)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
1. **Why Option 'c' is correct**: Both statements are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The Human Development Index (HDI) is based on three key dimensions: health (life expectancy), education (mean and expected years of schooling), and standard of living. Similarly, the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) heavily emphasize these same dimensions, particularly through SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being) and SDG 4 (Quality Education). Because the underlying targets of SDGs are deeply intertwined with health and education, Indian states that perform well in human development (HDI) naturally achieve higher rankings in the SDG India Index, establishing a strong positive relationship between the two.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option 'a'** is incorrect because (R) directly provides the causal link for (A); the overlap in health and education dimensions is the precise reason why HDI and SDG rankings are positively correlated.
- **Options 'b' and 'd'** are incorrect because both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are factually correct statements based on development economics and NITI Aayog's reports on Indian states.
What is the primary objective of Public Sector in India?
A)
Global expansion
B)
Social welfare
C)
Maximization of profit
D)
Competitive market
The primary objective of the Public Sector in India is to promote social welfare and ensure balanced, equitable economic growth. Unlike the private sector, which operates primarily for profit, the public sector is driven by a service motive to build infrastructure, generate employment, and reduce regional and income disparities.
- Option 'a' (Global expansion) is incorrect because global expansion is a secondary growth strategy for select enterprises, not the foundational objective of the public sector.
- Option 'c' (Maximization of profit) is incorrect because profit maximization is the primary goal of private enterprises, whereas the public sector prioritizes public interest over profits.
- Option 'd' (Competitive market) is incorrect because establishing a competitive market is a regulatory or macroeconomic policy goal, not the direct primary objective of public sector undertakings.
In the context of Indian cities, what is a major difference between planned and unplanned settlements?
A)
Planned settlements lack any residential zones
B)
Unplanned settlements have strictly segregated land uses
C)
Planned settlements exhibit organized street layouts and zoning
D)
Unplanned settlements are exclusively found in rural areas
Option 'c' is correct because planned settlements (such as Chandigarh or Noida) are designed with pre-determined layouts, featuring organized street networks (often gridiron patterns) and strict zoning regulations that separate residential, commercial, and industrial activities. Option 'a' is incorrect because residential zones are a fundamental component of any planned settlement. Option 'b' is incorrect because unplanned settlements typically feature mixed land use rather than strict segregation. Option 'd' is incorrect because unplanned settlements, such as slums and unauthorized colonies, are highly prevalent in urban areas, not just rural ones.
Which of the following Fundamental Rights under the Constitution is guaranteed only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners living in India?
A)
Equality before law
B)
Freedom of speech and expression
C)
Protection of life and personal liberty
D)
Free practice of religion
In the Constitution of India, certain Fundamental Rights are available only to Indian citizens, while others are available to all persons (citizens and foreigners alike). The rights guaranteed exclusively to Indian citizens are those under Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30.
1. **Why 'b' is correct**: 'Freedom of speech and expression' is guaranteed under Article 19, which is exclusively reserved for Indian citizens and not available to foreigners.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option a** (Equality before law - Article 14), **Option c** (Protection of life and personal liberty - Article 21), and **Option d** (Free practice of religion - Article 25) are fundamental rights guaranteed to all persons, whether citizens or foreigners (except enemy aliens).
Which of the following is Not a feature of the class system?
A)
Social mobility
B)
Inheritance of status
C)
Achievement- based status
D)
Economic inequality
In a class system, social stratification is open and fluid. 'Inheritance of status' (ascribed status) is a characteristic feature of closed systems like the caste system, where a person's social position is determined at birth and cannot be changed. Therefore, it is not a feature of the class system. On the other hand, 'Social mobility' (a) and 'Achievement-based status' (c) are defining features of the class system because individuals can change their social position through effort and merit. 'Economic inequality' (d) is also a fundamental feature, as classes are primarily defined by differences in wealth, income, and economic resources.
With reference to India, consider the following events : (i) Nationalisation of Banks, 1969. (ii) Formation of Regional Rural Banks. 1975. (iii) Adoption of villages by Bank Branches. (iv) Liberalization of the economy. Which of the above events can be considered as steps taken to achieve ‘financial inclusion in India’?
A)
Only (ii) and (iii)
B)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
C)
Only (i) and (ii)
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
To determine which events were steps taken to achieve financial inclusion in India, we analyze each event:
1. **Nationalisation of Banks, 1969 (i)**: This was a major step towards financial inclusion. It shifted the focus of banking from 'class banking' to 'mass banking', ensuring that banking services and credit reached rural, semi-urban, and weaker sections of society.
2. **Formation of Regional Rural Banks, 1975 (ii)**: RRBs were established with the specific mandate to provide credit and other banking facilities to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and small entrepreneurs in rural areas, directly fostering financial inclusion.
3. **Adoption of villages by Bank Branches (iii)**: Under the Village Adoption Scheme, bank branches adopted villages to intensively meet their credit and financial needs, which is a direct mechanism of financial inclusion.
4. **Liberalization of the economy, 1991 (iv)**: The primary objective of liberalization was to improve economic efficiency, deregulate industries, and integrate India with the global economy. It was not a policy targeted directly at achieving financial inclusion.
Therefore, only (i), (ii), and (iii) are considered direct steps taken to achieve financial inclusion, making option **b** the correct choice.
Which country gifted Boeing 747 jet to President Donald Trump?
A)
Bahrain
B)
Qatar
C)
United Arab Emirates
D)
Oman
The correct option is B (Qatar). In September 2018, the Emir of Qatar, Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani, gifted a luxurious Boeing 747-8i aircraft (valued at approximately $367 million) to Turkey's President Recep Tayyip Erdogan as a symbol of Qatar's appreciation and strong bilateral relations. Although this exam question contains a common error by naming US President Donald Trump as the recipient (US presidents are constitutionally barred from accepting such high-value personal gifts under the Emoluments Clause), Qatar is the correct country associated with this famous Boeing 747 state gift. Other options (Bahrain, United Arab Emirates, and Oman) are incorrect as they were not involved in gifting this aircraft.
Which of the following was not a member of the British Cabinet Mission which came to India in March 1946?
A)
Lord Pethick-Lawrence
B)
Sir Stafford Cripps
C)
A V Alexander
D)
Campbell Johnson
The British Cabinet Mission arrived in India in March 1946 to discuss the transfer of power from the British government to the Indian leadership. The mission consisted of three British cabinet members: Lord Pethick-Lawrence (Secretary of State for India), Sir Stafford Cripps (President of the Board of Trade), and A. V. Alexander (First Lord of the Admiralty). Therefore, options a, b, and c were members of the mission. Campbell Johnson (Alan Campbell-Johnson) was not a member of the Cabinet Mission; he later served as the Press Attaché to Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India.
The first major revolt that broke out soon after the British conquest of Bengal was
A)
Faraizis rebellion
B)
Revolt of 1857
C)
Sanyasi rebellion
D)
Munda rebellion
The Sanyasi Rebellion (1763–1800) was the first major uprising against British rule in Bengal, occurring shortly after the British conquest of Bengal (Battle of Plassey in 1757 and Battle of Buxar in 1764). It was led by Sanyasis and Fakirs against the economic exploitation, devastating famine of 1770, and restrictions on pilgrimages imposed by the East India Company. In contrast, the Faraizi rebellion started much later in 1818, the Revolt of 1857 occurred in the mid-19th century, and the Munda rebellion took place at the end of the 19th century (1899–1900).
Which of the following statements correctly explains the impact of Industrial Revolution in India during the first half of the 19th century?
A)
Indian handicrafts were ruined.
B)
Machines were introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers.
C)
Railway lines were laid in many parts of the country.
D)
Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of British manufacturers.
During the first half of the 19th century, the Industrial Revolution in Britain led to the mass production of cheap, machine-made goods, particularly textiles. The British colonial administration adopted a policy of 'one-way free trade', flooding Indian markets with these cheap imports. This severely undermined and ruined the traditional Indian handicraft and handloom industries, leading to massive de-industrialization. Option 'b' is incorrect because modern textile machinery was introduced in India only in the second half of the 19th century (the first cotton mill was established in 1854). Option 'c' is incorrect because railway construction in India began in the 1850s (the first passenger train ran in 1853). Option 'd' is incorrect because duties on British imports into India were kept extremely low, while heavy duties were imposed on Indian exports to Britain.
Which important event immediately preceded Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
A)
Non-Cooperation Movement
B)
Enactment of Rowlatt Act
C)
Communal Award
D)
Arrival of Simon Commission
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on April 13, 1919. It was a direct consequence of the protests against the Rowlatt Act, which was enacted in March 1919. The Act allowed the British government to imprison people without trial, leading to the arrest of popular leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal. The crowd at Jallianwala Bagh had gathered to peacefully protest these arrests.
- Option 'a' (Non-Cooperation Movement) was launched in 1920 as a response to the massacre.
- Option 'c' (Communal Award) was introduced much later in 1932.
- Option 'd' (Simon Commission) arrived in India in 1928.
The Scheme revamped in the Union Budget 2025-26 with enhancements such as increased loan limits, UPI-linked Credit Cards and capacity building for street vendors is-
A)
UNNATI
B)
PM Svanidhi
C)
PMEGP
D)
PMJJBY
The correct option is 'b' (PM Svanidhi). In the Union Budget 2025-26, the PM Svanidhi (Prime Minister Street Vendor's Atmanirbhar Nidhi) scheme was revamped with significant enhancements to support street vendors. These enhancements include increased loan limits, the introduction of UPI-linked Credit Cards to facilitate digital credit, and structured capacity-building programs.
- UNNATI (Option a) is an industrial development scheme for the Northeast region.
- PMEGP (Option c) is a credit-linked subsidy scheme for setting up new micro-enterprises in non-farm sectors.
- PMJJBY (Option d) is a government-backed life insurance scheme.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s reform of Hinduism was along the lines of: 1) Condemnation of idolatry, 2) Irrelevance of Brahmanical priest craft, 3) Propagation of Monotheism, 4) Projecting the Vedas as the repository of all scientific truth. Select the codes for the correct statements
A)
1 and 4 only
B)
1, 3 and 4 only
C)
1, 2 and 3 only
D)
All of the above
Raja Ram Mohan Roy's social and religious reforms were based on rationalism and monotheism. 1) He strongly condemned idolatry (image worship). 2) He opposed the supremacy and mediation of the Brahmanical priestly class, declaring their rituals and monopoly over scriptures as irrelevant. 3) He propagated monotheism (belief in one God) and wrote 'Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin' (A Gift to Monotheists) in 1809. 4) Statement 4 is incorrect because it was Swami Dayanand Saraswati (founder of Arya Samaj) who claimed that the Vedas are infallible and contain all scientific truths, whereas Raja Ram Mohan Roy held a rationalist view and did not consider any scripture to be completely infallible. Therefore, only statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.