← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions — 2025
Which of the following Industrial Policies is considered as the ‘Economic Constitution of India’ or the ‘Bible of State Capitalism’?
A)
Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948
B)
Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956
C)
Industrial Policy Statement of 1969
D)
Industrial Policy Statement of 1973
The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 (IPR 1956) is widely referred to as the 'Economic Constitution of India' or the 'Bible of State Capitalism'. It shaped India's industrial structure by giving the public sector a dominant role (state capitalism) and classifying industries into three distinct categories (Schedules A, B, and C) to achieve a 'socialistic pattern of society'.
- Option a (1948) is incorrect because, while it was India's first industrial policy and introduced the mixed economy model, it is not known by these titles.
- Options c (1969) and d (1973) are incorrect as they were subsequent policy statements aimed at regulating monopolies and defining core industries, rather than establishing the foundational economic framework.
The constitution of India came into force on:
A)
January 15, 1950
B)
January 18, 1950
C)
January 26, 1950
D)
January 30, 1950
The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950, which is celebrated annually as Republic Day. This date was specifically chosen to commemorate the 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) declaration by the Indian National Congress in 1930. Although the Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, it officially commenced on this day. The other dates (January 15, January 18, and January 30, 1950) have no historical relevance to the commencement of the Indian Constitution.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : During 2023-24, Singapore emerged as the largest source of FDI to India. Reason (R) : The India-Mauritius Tax Treaty amendment has brought a major shift in countries as a major sources of FDI to India. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
B)
(A) is false but (R) is true.
C)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
D)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
1. **Why the correct option is correct**:
- **Assertion (A) is true**: According to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) data for the financial year 2023-24, Singapore was the largest source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India, followed by Mauritius.
- **Reason (R) is true**: The amendment to the India-Mauritius Double Tax Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) plugged tax loopholes (such as treaty shopping and round-tripping) by taxing capital gains. This led to a major shift in FDI inflows away from Mauritius to other favorable jurisdictions, primarily Singapore.
- Since the tax treaty amendment is the primary reason behind the shift in FDI sources that enabled Singapore to overtake Mauritius as the top source, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option (a)** is incorrect because (R) directly explains the shift in FDI dynamics that led to the scenario described in (A).
- **Option (b)** is incorrect because Assertion (A) is factually correct.
- **Option (d)** is incorrect because Reason (R) is factually correct and explains the underlying cause of the assertion.
Match List -I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists: List-I (Revolution) List-II (Related with) A. Golden Revolution 1. Oil seed production B. Grey Revolution 2. Horticulture and Honey C. Yellow Revolution 3. Petroleum production D. Black Revolution 4. Fertilizers
A)
4 2 1 3
B)
2 3 4 1
C)
1 2 3 4
D)
2 4 1 3
To find the correct match, we can analyze each revolution:
1. **Golden Revolution (A)** is associated with the development of Horticulture and Honey production (matches with 2).
2. **Grey Revolution (B)** is associated with increased Fertilizer production (matches with 4).
3. **Yellow Revolution (C)** is associated with Oil seed production, particularly mustard and sesame (matches with 1).
4. **Black Revolution (D)** is associated with Petroleum production (matches with 3).
This gives the sequence **2 4 1 3**, which corresponds to option **d**. Other options are incorrect because they do not correctly pair these well-known agricultural and industrial revolutions with their respective sectors.
Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
A)
Mahatma Gandhi
B)
Rabindranath Tagore
C)
Shankaran Nair
D)
Jamnalal Bajaj
Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair resigned from the membership of the Viceroy’s Executive Council in 1919 as a direct protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the subsequent imposition of martial law in Punjab.
- Mahatma Gandhi (Option a) returned his Kaiser-i-Hind gold medal in protest.
- Rabindranath Tagore (Option b) renounced his Knighthood in protest against the massacre.
- Jamnalal Bajaj (Option d) surrendered his title of Rai Bahadur.
Who amongst the following elects the Vice-President of India? Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (i) Members of Lok Sabha (ii) Members of Rajya Sabha (iii) Members of Legislative Assemblies (iv) Members of Legislative Councils
A)
(i) and (ii)
B)
(i) and (iii)
C)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
According to Article 66(1) of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament, which includes both elected and nominated members of the Lok Sabha (i) and the Rajya Sabha (ii). Members of the State Legislative Assemblies (iii) and State Legislative Councils (iv) do not participate in the election of the Vice-President (unlike the Presidential election where elected members of Legislative Assemblies do participate). Therefore, only statements (i) and (ii) are correct, making option 'a' the correct choice.
Consider the following agricultural related revolutions in India: (i) Green revolution – Agriculture (HYV) production (ii) Yellow revolution – Oilseeds production (iii) Round revolution – Potato production (iv) Protein revolution – High agricultural production Which of the revolutions given above are correct?
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
C)
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
All the given agricultural revolutions in India are correctly matched:
1. **Green Revolution (i)**: Launched in the mid-1960s, it focused on increasing agricultural production, especially wheat and rice, using High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds.
2. **Yellow Revolution (ii)**: Launched in 1986-1987, it targeted self-reliance in oilseeds production (such as mustard, groundnut, and sesame).
3. **Round Revolution (iii)**: This refers to the initiative aimed at multiplying the production of potatoes in India.
4. **Protein Revolution (iv)**: Coined by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in the 2014 Union Budget, it refers to a technology-driven second Green Revolution aimed at achieving high agricultural production.
Since all four statements are correct, option 'd' is the right choice.
A condition which occurs due to deprivation from basic human needs like food, shelter based on minimum costs without considering social norms is called:
A)
Relative poverty
B)
Absolute poverty
C)
Situational poverty
D)
Generational poverty
Absolute poverty is a condition characterized by severe deprivation of basic human needs, such as food, safe drinking water, sanitation, health, and shelter. It is measured against a fixed, universal standard of minimum costs required for basic survival, without considering social norms or the average standard of living in a society. In contrast: 1) 'Relative poverty' is defined in relation to the economic status of other members of society and changes as the society becomes more prosperous. 2) 'Situational poverty' is a temporary poverty caused by a specific crisis or life event (e.g., illness, job loss). 3) 'Generational poverty' refers to poverty that is passed down from one generation to the next within a family.
Which of the following is not a feature of Indian democracy?
A)
It is the government of the people, by the people and for the people
B)
It guarantees rights
C)
It accommodates social distinction and diversities
D)
It provides reservation of women up to 33% at various levels
Option 'd' is the correct answer because it is not a feature of Indian democracy at all levels. While the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts guarantee 33% reservation for women in local self-government bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities), this reservation has historically not been implemented at other legislative levels, such as the State Legislative Assemblies or the Parliament (Lok Sabha). Therefore, claiming it provides reservation at 'various levels' is inaccurate.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because Indian democracy is indeed a government of, by, and for the people.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because the Indian Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights to all its citizens under Part III.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because Indian democracy successfully accommodates immense social, linguistic, and cultural diversities through its federal and secular structure.
With reference to the sectoral distribution of the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (i) Animal husbandry is the primary sector. (ii) Transportation is the secondary sector. (iii) Construction is the secondary sector. (iv) Financial service is the tertiary sector. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
C)
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
To determine the correct option, let's analyze each statement based on the sectoral classification of the Indian economy:
1. **Statement (i) is correct**: Animal husbandry, along with agriculture, forestry, and fishing, directly exploits natural resources and is classified under the **Primary Sector**.
2. **Statement (ii) is incorrect**: Transportation is a service that facilitates the movement of goods and people, which classifies it under the **Tertiary (Service) Sector**, not the secondary sector.
3. **Statement (iii) is correct**: Construction involves manufacturing and building infrastructure, which falls under the industrial or **Secondary Sector**.
4. **Statement (iv) is correct**: Financial services (like banking and insurance) provide intangible services to businesses and consumers, placing them in the **Tertiary Sector**.
Since statements (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct, option 'c' is the correct answer. Options 'a', 'b', and 'd' are incorrect because they include statement (ii).
Fiscal policy in India comprises of the following components: (i) Government receipts (ii) Government expenditure (iii) Public debt Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i) only
B)
(ii) only
C)
(i) and (ii) only
D)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
Fiscal policy in India refers to the use of government spending, taxation, and borrowing to influence the country's economy. It comprises three main components:
1. **Government Receipts (i):** This includes both tax revenue (direct and indirect taxes) and non-tax revenue, which are crucial for funding public services.
2. **Government Expenditure (ii):** This refers to the spending by the government on developmental and non-developmental activities.
3. **Public Debt (iii):** When government expenditure exceeds its receipts, the government bridges the fiscal deficit through public borrowing (internal and external debt).
Since all three elements are integral instruments of fiscal policy, option 'd' is correct, while options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect as they are incomplete.
The main objectives of NITI Aayog are: (i) Cooperative federalism. (ii) Formulation of plans at village level. (iii) Economic policy that incorporates national security interests (iv) Innovation and entrepreneurial support. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(i), (ii) and (iv) only
C)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
All four statements represent the core objectives of NITI Aayog:
1. **Cooperative Federalism (i):** To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives with the States, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.
2. **Village-level Planning (ii):** To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
3. **National Security and Economic Policy (iii):** To ensure that national security interests are incorporated into economic strategy and policy.
4. **Innovation and Entrepreneurial Support (iv):** To create a knowledge, innovation, and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts.
Since all statements (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct, option 'd' is the correct choice, while options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect as they are incomplete.
The idea of Gram Swaraj proposed by Mahatma Gandhi advocates for
A)
Centralization of power
B)
Self governance at the village level
C)
A capitalist economy
D)
Heavy industrialization
The correct option is 'b' because 'Gram Swaraj' literally translates to 'village self-rule'. Mahatma Gandhi envisioned a decentralized political and economic system where each village is a self-reliant, autonomous unit capable of managing its own affairs through self-governance.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option 'a' is incorrect because Gandhi strongly opposed the centralization of power, advocating instead for democratic decentralization.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because Gandhi favored cottage and village-scale industries over heavy, large-scale industrialization, which he believed would lead to mass unemployment and exploitation.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because Gandhi's economic vision was based on self-sufficiency, cooperation, and the principle of 'Trusteeship', rather than a competitive capitalist economy.
Consider who coined the following slogans: (i) I am a Hindu, a Muslim, a Parsi, but above all an Indian first – Dadabhai Naoroji (ii) Do or Die – Mahatma Gandhi (iii) Swaraj is my birth right, and I shall have it. – Bal Gangadhar Tilak (iv) Satyameva Jayate – MN Roy Select the correct slogans with persons using the codes given below:
A)
(i) and (ii) only
B)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
C)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
To determine the correct option, let's analyze each slogan and its association:
1. **Statement (i) is correct**: Dadabhai Naoroji, the 'Grand Old Man of India', famously emphasized national unity over religious identity by declaring, "Whether I am a Hindu, a Mohammedan, a Parsi, a Christian, or of any other creed, I am above all an Indian."
2. **Statement (ii) is correct**: Mahatma Gandhi gave the famous slogan "Do or Die" (Karo ya Maro) during his speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, marking the launch of the Quit India Movement in 1942.
3. **Statement (iii) is correct**: Bal Gangadhar Tilak, one of the prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement, coined the slogan "Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it" to advocate for self-rule.
4. **Statement (iv) is incorrect**: "Satyameva Jayate" (Truth alone triumphs) is an ancient Sanskrit mantra from the Mundaka Upanishad. It was popularized as a national slogan by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya in 1918, not by the communist leader M.N. Roy.
Since statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct, option 'b' is the correct choice. Options 'a', 'c', and 'd' are incorrect because they either omit correct statements or include the incorrect statement (iv).
The Governor in the State possesses the following powers and functions (i) Financial (ii) Military (iii) Judicial (iv) Emergency Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(i) and (iii) only
C)
(ii) and (iv) only
D)
(iii) and (iv) only
The Governor of a State in India possesses Executive, Legislative, Financial, and Judicial powers, but does not possess Military or Emergency powers.
1. **Financial Powers (i)**: The Governor ensures that the Annual Financial Statement (State Budget) is laid before the State Legislature, and Money Bills can only be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with their prior recommendation.
2. **Judicial Powers (iii)**: The Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, and remissions of punishment, and is consulted by the President of India when appointing judges to the State High Court.
3. **Military (ii) and Emergency (iv) Powers**: These powers are exclusively vested in the President of India. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces (Military power) and has the authority to declare national, state, or financial emergencies (Emergency power). While a Governor can recommend the imposition of President's Rule in a state, the actual emergency power lies with the President.
Consider the following statements: (i) Harrod – Domar model was adopted in 1st Five Year Plan. (ii) Nehru – Mahalanobis model was adopted in 2nd Five Year Plan. (iii) Gadgil model was adopted in 5th Five Year Plan. (iv) Rao-Manmohan Singh model was adopted in 8th Five Year Plan. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
C)
(i), (ii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
To determine the correct option, let's evaluate each statement:
1. **Statement (i) is correct**: The First Five Year Plan (1951–1956) was based on the Harrod-Domar model, which emphasized increasing savings and investment to boost economic growth, with a primary focus on agriculture.
2. **Statement (ii) is correct**: The Second Five Year Plan (1956–1961) was based on the Nehru-Mahalanobis model, which prioritized rapid industrialization and the development of basic and heavy industries.
3. **Statement (iii) is incorrect**: The Gadgil model (or Gadgil formula for central assistance) was adopted during the Fourth Five Year Plan (1969–1974). The Fifth Five Year Plan (1974–1979) was designed and launched by D.P. Dhar, focusing on poverty alleviation ('Garibi Hatao') and self-reliance.
4. **Statement (iv) is correct**: The Eighth Five Year Plan (1992–1997) was initiated during a period of major economic transition and was based on the Rao-Manmohan Singh model of economic liberalization, privatization, and globalization (LPG reforms).
Since statements (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct, option (c) is the correct choice.
Which of the following social issues did Raja Ram Mohan Roy address through his reform movement?
A)
Economic inequality
B)
Untouchability
C)
Apartheid
D)
Political corruption
Raja Ram Mohan Roy, widely regarded as the 'Father of the Indian Renaissance' and founder of the Brahmo Samaj, was a pioneering social reformer who vehemently opposed the rigid caste system and the practice of untouchability, advocating for the equality and dignity of all human beings. Among the other options: 'Economic inequality' (a) was not the primary focus of his social reform movement; 'Apartheid' (c) refers to the 20th-century system of racial segregation in South Africa and is historically irrelevant to his era; and 'Political corruption' (d), while a modern governance issue, was not the target of his social and religious reform campaigns.
The Stock Market deals in which of the following?
A)
Short term securities
B)
Long term securities
C)
Both long term and short term securities
D)
Only secured bonds
The stock market is a major component of the capital market, which deals with long-term securities (such as equity shares, preference shares, and debentures) that have a maturity period of more than one year. In contrast, short-term securities (with a maturity of less than one year, like Treasury Bills and Commercial Paper) are traded in the Money Market, making options 'a' and 'c' incorrect. Option 'd' is incorrect because the stock market deals with a wide variety of instruments, including equities (which represent ownership and are not secured bonds).
The demarcation of which river’s source has led to boundary tensions between India and Nepal?
A)
Ganga
B)
Brahmaputra
C)
Mahakali (Kali)
D)
Yamuna
The correct option is 'c' (Mahakali (Kali)). The boundary dispute between India and Nepal, particularly concerning the Kalapani-Limpiyadhura-Lipulekh tri-junction, centers on the origin of the Kali River (also known as the Mahakali River). Under the 1816 Treaty of Sugauli, the Kali River was designated as Nepal's western boundary with India. However, both countries have differing interpretations of the river's actual source, leading to territorial disputes. The other options are incorrect because: (a) Ganga and (d) Yamuna flow entirely within India (and Bangladesh for Ganga) and are not boundary rivers between India and Nepal; (b) Brahmaputra flows through China, India, and Bangladesh, and is not involved in India-Nepal border disputes.
Which Chinese strategy has raised concerns for India in the Indian Ocean Region?
A)
Green Belt Movement
B)
String of Pearls
C)
Jasmine Revolution
D)
Operation Ocean Ridge
The correct option is 'b' (String of Pearls). This term refers to a geopolitical strategy involving a network of Chinese military and commercial facilities and relationships along its sea lines of communication, extending through the Indian Ocean Region. This network effectively encircles India, raising significant strategic and security concerns for the country. Other options are incorrect because: 'a' (Green Belt Movement) is an environmental organization in Kenya; 'c' (Jasmine Revolution) refers to the 2011 popular uprising in Tunisia; and 'd' (Operation Ocean Ridge) is not a recognized Chinese strategy.
Public Distribution System was first introduced in India in:
A)
1945
B)
1955
C)
1965
D)
1975
The Public Distribution System (PDS) in India has its origins in the rationing system introduced by the British during World War II. It was first introduced in 1945 to manage severe food shortages and ensure the equitable distribution of food grains, particularly in urban areas.
- Option b (1955) is incorrect because 1955 marked the enactment of the Essential Commodities Act, which supported the PDS but was not its starting point.
- Option c (1965) is incorrect because 1965 saw the establishment of the Food Corporation of India (FCI) and the Agricultural Prices Commission to streamline food procurement and distribution, building upon the pre-existing PDS.
- Option d (1975) is incorrect as it is much later than the actual introduction of the system.
Major portion of working population in India is in?
A)
Tertiary sector
B)
Primary sector
C)
Public sector
D)
Secondary sector
The primary sector (primarily agriculture and allied activities) employs the largest portion of the working population in India, accounting for nearly 43-45% of the total workforce. Although its contribution to India's GDP has decreased over time, it remains the largest employer. In contrast, the tertiary (services) sector contributes the most to GDP but employs only about 30% of the workforce (making option 'a' incorrect). The secondary (industrial) sector employs around 25% of the workforce (making option 'd' incorrect). The public sector refers to government-owned enterprises and employs only a small fraction of the total workforce (making option 'c' incorrect).
Gandhi started the Dandi March from which place?
A)
Champaran
B)
Sabarmati Ashram
C)
Bardoli
D)
Dandi
Mahatma Gandhi started the historic Dandi March (also known as the Salt Satyagraha) on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, marching towards the coastal village of Dandi to protest against the British salt monopoly. Option 'd' (Dandi) is incorrect because it was the destination of the march, reached on April 6, 1930. Option 'a' (Champaran) is incorrect as it is associated with the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 (Gandhi's first satyagraha in India). Option 'c' (Bardoli) is incorrect as it is associated with the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Who is widely known as the ‘Father of Indian Renaissance’?
A)
Vivekananda
B)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C)
Rabindranath Tagore
D)
Dayanand Saraswati
Raja Ram Mohan Roy is widely known as the 'Father of Indian Renaissance' because of his pioneering efforts in social, educational, and political reforms in India during the early 19th century. He founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 and played a crucial role in the abolition of the practice of Sati.
- Option 'a' (Vivekananda) is incorrect as he was a key spiritual leader who introduced Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world and founded the Ramakrishna Mission.
- Option 'c' (Rabindranath Tagore) is incorrect as he was a legendary poet, writer, and philosopher who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.
- Option 'd' (Dayanand Saraswati) is incorrect as he was the founder of the Arya Samaj and is known for his call to 'Go back to the Vedas'.
The first major revolt that broke out soon after the British conquest of Bengal was
A)
Faraizis rebellion
B)
Revolt of 1857
C)
Sanyasi rebellion
D)
Munda rebellion
The Sanyasi Rebellion (1763–1800) was the first major uprising against British rule in Bengal, occurring shortly after the British conquest of Bengal (Battle of Plassey in 1757 and Battle of Buxar in 1764). It was led by Sanyasis and Fakirs against the economic exploitation, devastating famine of 1770, and restrictions on pilgrimages imposed by the East India Company. In contrast, the Faraizi rebellion started much later in 1818, the Revolt of 1857 occurred in the mid-19th century, and the Munda rebellion took place at the end of the 19th century (1899–1900).