← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions — 2025
Which state is the first state to establish the democratic decentralization came to be known as Panchayati Raj?
A)
Andhra Pradesh
B)
Rajasthan
C)
Gujarat
D)
Madhya Pradesh
Rajasthan was the first state in India to establish the Panchayati Raj system (democratic decentralization). It was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district. Andhra Pradesh (option a) was the second state to implement the system, launching it on November 1, 1959. Gujarat (option c) and Madhya Pradesh (option d) adopted the Panchayati Raj system at later stages.
The current National Highway 06 (NH-06) passes through the following states: (i) Arunachal Pradesh (ii) Assam (iii) Meghalaya (iv) Mizoram Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(ii) and (iii) only
C)
(iii) and (iv) only
D)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
National Highway 06 (NH-06) under the new numbering system connects the northeastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, and Mizoram. It starts from its junction with NH-27 near Jorabat in Meghalaya, passes through Shillong and Jowai (Meghalaya), enters Assam at Badarpur and Silchar, and then goes into Mizoram passing through Kolasib and Aizawl before terminating at Selling. It does not pass through Arunachal Pradesh. Therefore, statements (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct, making option (d) the correct answer.
What was the main objective of Nehru’s ‘Socialist pattern of Society’?
A)
Privatization of Industries
B)
Establishment of a welfare state
C)
Liberalization of Foreign Trade
D)
Expansion of heavy industries
The 'Socialist pattern of society' was officially adopted as the goal of economic policy at the Avadi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1955 under Jawaharlal Nehru. Its primary objective was the establishment of a welfare state where the state plays a key role in protecting and promoting the economic and social well-being of its citizens, reducing inequalities, and ensuring equitable distribution of wealth.
* **Why other options are incorrect:**
* **a (Privatization of Industries):** This is incorrect because Nehru's model emphasized state control and the dominance of the public sector over key industries, rather than privatization.
* **c (Liberalization of Foreign Trade):** This is incorrect because India followed a highly protectionist, import-substitution policy during Nehru's era. Liberalization was only introduced in 1991.
* **d (Expansion of heavy industries):** While the expansion of heavy industries was a major strategy under the Second Five-Year Plan (Mahalanobis model) to achieve industrial self-reliance, it was a means to an end. The ultimate socio-economic objective of the 'Socialist pattern' was the broader creation of a welfare state.
Who was the first Chairman of Planning Commission of India?
A)
Jawaharlal Nehru
B)
M. Visvesvaraya
C)
P.C. Mahalanobis
D)
John Mathai
The Planning Commission of India was established on March 15, 1950, with the Prime Minister of India serving as its ex-officio Chairman. Since Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of independent India, he became the first Chairman of the Planning Commission.
- **M. Visvesvaraya (Option b):** He was a legendary engineer and administrator who wrote the book 'Planned Economy for India' in 1934, proposing a ten-year plan, but was not the Chairman of the Commission.
- **P.C. Mahalanobis (Option c):** He was a renowned statistician and a key member of the Planning Commission who formulated the Mahalanobis model for the Second Five-Year Plan, but he was not the Chairman.
- **John Mathai (Option d):** He was India's first Railway Minister and later served as the Finance Minister, but did not head the Planning Commission.
Article 3 of the Indian constitution authorizes the Parliament to: (i) Alter the name of any state (ii) Increase the area of any state (iii) Diminish the area of any state (iv) Alter the boundaries of any state Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
1, 2, and 3 only
B)
1, 3 and 4 only
C)
1 and 4 only
D)
1, 2, 3 and 4
Article 3 of the Constitution of India authorizes the Parliament to form new States and alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States. Specifically, it allows Parliament to: (i) alter the name of any state, (ii) increase the area of any state, (iii) diminish the area of any state, and (iv) alter the boundaries of any state. Since all four statements are correct, option 'd' (1, 2, 3 and 4) is the correct answer. Options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect because they are incomplete and omit one or more of these constitutionally authorized powers.
A party is recognized as a state party in a state if: (i) It secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the legislative Assembly of the state concerned (ii) It secures 4% of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election of the Lok Sabha from the state concerned (iii) It wins 3% of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to the legislative Assembly of the state concerned (iv) It wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(i), (iii) and (iv) only
C)
(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
To be recognized as a State Party in India, a political party must fulfill any of the conditions laid down by the Election Commission of India:
1. **Statement (i) is correct**: The party must secure at least 6% of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election to the Legislative Assembly, and in addition, win at least 2 seats in that Assembly.
2. **Statement (ii) is incorrect**: The actual requirement is securing at least **6%** (not 4%) of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election to the Lok Sabha, and in addition, winning at least 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from that State.
3. **Statement (iii) is correct**: The party must win at least 3% of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State, or 3 seats in the Assembly, whichever is more.
4. **Statement (iv) is correct**: The party must win at least 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to that State.
Since statement (ii) is incorrect, options (a), (c), and (d) are eliminated, leaving (b) as the correct choice.
The Mountbatten Plan became the basis for:
A)
Continuity of British rule.
B)
Transfer of power.
C)
Partition of the country.
D)
Solution of communal problems.
The Mountbatten Plan, announced on June 3, 1947, by Lord Mountbatten (the last Viceroy of India), laid down the detailed blueprint for the partition of British India into two independent dominions: India and Pakistan. Therefore, it directly became the basis for the partition of the country.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because the plan marked the end of British rule, not its continuity.
- Option 'b' is partially related as power was transferred, but the defining and primary basis of the Mountbatten Plan was the partition itself.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because the plan did not solve communal problems; rather, it accepted partition as a tragic necessity due to the failure to resolve those communal differences.
Consider the following phases of India’s Foreign Trade Policy: (i) Phase I – Import restriction and import substitution (ii) Phase II – Export promotion and import liberalization (iii) Phase III – Outward oriented Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i) and (ii) only
B)
(i) and (iii) only
C)
(ii) and (iii) only
D)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
The correct option is (d) because all three statements accurately describe the distinct phases of India's Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) since independence:
1. **Phase I (1950 to mid-1970s) - Import restriction and import substitution:** This phase was characterized by an inward-looking strategy aimed at self-reliance, protecting domestic industries through high tariffs, quotas, and strict import licensing.
2. **Phase II (mid-1970s to 1980s) - Export promotion and import liberalization:** Recognizing the limitations of the inward-looking model, India introduced export promotion measures and selective liberalization of imports, especially for capital goods and raw materials needed for export production.
3. **Phase III (1991 onwards) - Outward oriented:** Following the 1991 economic reforms, India adopted an outward-oriented trade policy. This phase involved deep integration with the global economy, drastic reduction of customs duties, dismantling of quantitative restrictions, and promotion of foreign direct investment (FDI).
Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect because they omit one or more of these correct and well-established phases of India's trade policy evolution.
A person to be eligible for election as President of India should fulfill the following qualifications: (i) He should be a citizen of India. (ii) He should have completed 35 years of age. (iii) He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha. (iv) He should not hold any office of profit under the Union or any state government or any local authority or any other public authority. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i) and (ii) only
B)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
C)
(i), (ii) and (iv) only
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
According to Article 58 of the Constitution of India, the qualifications for a person to be eligible for election as President are: (i) He must be a citizen of India, (ii) He must have completed the age of 35 years, and (iii) He must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha (House of the People). Additionally, under Article 58(2), he should not hold any office of profit under the Government of India, or the Government of any State, or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments.
- Statement (iii) is incorrect because the candidate must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha (qualification for Rajya Sabha is required for the Vice-President of India under Article 66).
- Since statement (iii) is incorrect, options (b) and (d) are eliminated. Option (a) is incomplete because statement (iv) is also a valid qualification. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.
Study the statements given below in terms of rural and urban settlements: (i) The size of the settlement is small. (ii) The settlement generally provides manufactured goods and services. (iii) The density of the population is high. (iv) People are less mobile and therefore, social relations among dwellers are intimate. Choose the correct statements from the obove statements for rural settlements:
A)
(i) and (iii)
B)
(ii) and (iv)
C)
(i) and (iv)
D)
(ii) and (iii)
To identify the correct statements for rural settlements, we analyze each statement:
1. **Statement (i)**: 'The size of the settlement is small.' This is a defining characteristic of rural settlements, which have smaller populations and land areas compared to urban areas.
2. **Statement (ii)**: 'The settlement generally provides manufactured goods and services.' This describes urban settlements, which are centers of secondary (manufacturing) and tertiary (services) economic activities.
3. **Statement (iii)**: 'The density of the population is high.' This is characteristic of urban settlements, whereas rural settlements have low population density.
4. **Statement (iv)**: 'People are less mobile and therefore, social relations among dwellers are intimate.' This is true for rural settlements, where community life is close-knit and social relations are deeply personal and informal.
Since statements (i) and (iv) correctly describe rural settlements, option 'c' is the correct choice. Options 'a', 'b', and 'd' are incorrect because they include statements (ii) or (iii), which are characteristic of urban settlements.
Which one of the following is not a level in the three-tier Panchayati Raj recommended by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?
A)
Panchayat Samiti
B)
Gram Panchayat
C)
Zilla Panchayat
D)
Nyaya Panchayat
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system to democratize and decentralize local administration in India. The three recommended tiers are: 1. Gram Panchayat at the village level, 2. Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and 3. Zilla Parishad (Zilla Panchayat) at the district level. Nyaya Panchayat, which functions as a judicial organ at the local level, was not recommended as one of the tiers in this three-tier structure by the committee. Therefore, options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect as they represent the actual three tiers recommended by the committee.
Which among the following is core method of stabilizing the markets under the Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS)?
A)
Issuing Treasury Bills and/or dated securities
B)
Purchasing Treasury Bills and/or dated securities
C)
Conducting Open Market Operations
D)
All the above
The Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) is a monetary policy intervention by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to withdraw excess liquidity from the system. Under this scheme, the RBI stabilizes the market by issuing Treasury Bills and/or dated government securities to absorb surplus liquidity arising from large capital inflows. Option 'b' is incorrect because purchasing securities would inject liquidity into the market, which defeats the purpose of MSS. Option 'c' is incorrect because Open Market Operations (OMOs) are a general, standard tool for liquidity management, whereas MSS is a specific scheme where the proceeds are held in a separate, non-usable account with the RBI.
Which of the following was introduced to tackle regional imbalances in India during the Five Year Plans?
A)
Minimum Support Price
B)
Backward Regions Grant Fund
C)
National Food Security Act
D)
Make in India Initiative
The Backward Regions Grant Fund (BRGF) was launched in 2006-07 (during the Tenth/Eleventh Five Year Plan period) specifically to redress regional imbalances in development by providing financial resources to catalyze development in identified backward districts.
- Option 'a' (Minimum Support Price) was introduced in 1966-67 to incentivize agricultural production and ensure food security, not to address regional imbalances.
- Option 'c' (National Food Security Act) was enacted in 2013 to provide subsidized food grains to ensure food and nutritional security to the population.
- Option 'd' (Make in India Initiative) was launched in 2014 to transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub.
Which of the following is/are the characteristic/s of Indian coal? (i) High ash content. (ii) Low sulphur content. (iii) Low ash fusion content. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A)
(i) and (ii)
B)
(ii) only
C)
(i) and (iii)
D)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
Indian coal is characterized by the following features:
1. **High Ash Content (Statement i is correct):** Indian coal has a very high ash content, typically ranging from 35% to 45%, compared to imported coal which usually has an ash content of 10% to 15%.
2. **Low Sulphur Content (Statement ii is correct):** Indian coal generally has a low sulphur content (usually less than 0.5%), which is environmentally advantageous as it reduces sulphur dioxide (SOx) emissions during combustion.
3. **High Ash Fusion Temperature (Statement iii is incorrect):** Indian coal has a high ash fusion temperature (typically above 1200°C to 1500°C), meaning the ash does not melt easily. Therefore, the statement 'low ash fusion content/temperature' is incorrect.
Since statements (i) and (ii) are correct and (iii) is incorrect, option 'a' is the correct choice.
Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi?
A)
Rabindranath Tagore
B)
N.G. Ranga
C)
Rajkumar Shukla
D)
Rajendra Prasad
N.G. Ranga opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi as he had differences with Gandhi's leadership and methods during this movement. On the other hand:
- Rabindranath Tagore (Option a) supported Gandhi and actually bestowed the title of 'Mahatma' upon him during the Champaran Satyagraha.
- Rajkumar Shukla (Option c) was the local peasant leader who actively persuaded Gandhi to visit Champaran to address the grievances of the indigo farmers.
- Rajendra Prasad (Option d) was one of the prominent leaders who actively supported and assisted Gandhi during the Satyagraha.
What is the primary objective of Public Sector in India?
A)
Global expansion
B)
Social welfare
C)
Maximization of profit
D)
Competitive market
The primary objective of the Public Sector in India is to promote social welfare and ensure balanced, equitable economic growth. Unlike the private sector, which operates primarily for profit, the public sector is driven by a service motive to build infrastructure, generate employment, and reduce regional and income disparities.
- Option 'a' (Global expansion) is incorrect because global expansion is a secondary growth strategy for select enterprises, not the foundational objective of the public sector.
- Option 'c' (Maximization of profit) is incorrect because profit maximization is the primary goal of private enterprises, whereas the public sector prioritizes public interest over profits.
- Option 'd' (Competitive market) is incorrect because establishing a competitive market is a regulatory or macroeconomic policy goal, not the direct primary objective of public sector undertakings.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : There is a positive relationship between Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian States. Reason (R) : The underlying dimension of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
B)
(A) is false but (R) is true.
C)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
D)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
1. **Why Option 'c' is correct**: Both statements are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The Human Development Index (HDI) is based on three key dimensions: health (life expectancy), education (mean and expected years of schooling), and standard of living. Similarly, the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) heavily emphasize these same dimensions, particularly through SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being) and SDG 4 (Quality Education). Because the underlying targets of SDGs are deeply intertwined with health and education, Indian states that perform well in human development (HDI) naturally achieve higher rankings in the SDG India Index, establishing a strong positive relationship between the two.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option 'a'** is incorrect because (R) directly provides the causal link for (A); the overlap in health and education dimensions is the precise reason why HDI and SDG rankings are positively correlated.
- **Options 'b' and 'd'** are incorrect because both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are factually correct statements based on development economics and NITI Aayog's reports on Indian states.
In the context of Indian cities, what is a major difference between planned and unplanned settlements?
A)
Planned settlements lack any residential zones
B)
Unplanned settlements have strictly segregated land uses
C)
Planned settlements exhibit organized street layouts and zoning
D)
Unplanned settlements are exclusively found in rural areas
Option 'c' is correct because planned settlements (such as Chandigarh or Noida) are designed with pre-determined layouts, featuring organized street networks (often gridiron patterns) and strict zoning regulations that separate residential, commercial, and industrial activities. Option 'a' is incorrect because residential zones are a fundamental component of any planned settlement. Option 'b' is incorrect because unplanned settlements typically feature mixed land use rather than strict segregation. Option 'd' is incorrect because unplanned settlements, such as slums and unauthorized colonies, are highly prevalent in urban areas, not just rural ones.
The growth of India’s real GDP during the year 2024 – 2025 is estimated at
A)
6.2%
B)
6.5%
C)
6.7%
D)
6.9%
According to the Economic Survey of India 2023-24, presented in Parliament in July 2024, India's real GDP growth for the financial year 2024-25 (FY25) is projected to be in the range of 6.5% to 7.0%, with 6.5% serving as the conservative baseline estimate. Therefore, option (b) is the correct choice. Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect as they do not align with the official baseline projection of 6.5% set by the Economic Survey.
The demarcation of which river’s source has led to boundary tensions between India and Nepal?
A)
Ganga
B)
Brahmaputra
C)
Mahakali (Kali)
D)
Yamuna
The correct option is 'c' (Mahakali (Kali)). The boundary dispute between India and Nepal, particularly concerning the Kalapani-Limpiyadhura-Lipulekh tri-junction, centers on the origin of the Kali River (also known as the Mahakali River). Under the 1816 Treaty of Sugauli, the Kali River was designated as Nepal's western boundary with India. However, both countries have differing interpretations of the river's actual source, leading to territorial disputes. The other options are incorrect because: (a) Ganga and (d) Yamuna flow entirely within India (and Bangladesh for Ganga) and are not boundary rivers between India and Nepal; (b) Brahmaputra flows through China, India, and Bangladesh, and is not involved in India-Nepal border disputes.
With reference to India, consider the following events : (i) Nationalisation of Banks, 1969. (ii) Formation of Regional Rural Banks. 1975. (iii) Adoption of villages by Bank Branches. (iv) Liberalization of the economy. Which of the above events can be considered as steps taken to achieve ‘financial inclusion in India’?
A)
Only (ii) and (iii)
B)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
C)
Only (i) and (ii)
D)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
To determine which events were steps taken to achieve financial inclusion in India, we analyze each event:
1. **Nationalisation of Banks, 1969 (i)**: This was a major step towards financial inclusion. It shifted the focus of banking from 'class banking' to 'mass banking', ensuring that banking services and credit reached rural, semi-urban, and weaker sections of society.
2. **Formation of Regional Rural Banks, 1975 (ii)**: RRBs were established with the specific mandate to provide credit and other banking facilities to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and small entrepreneurs in rural areas, directly fostering financial inclusion.
3. **Adoption of villages by Bank Branches (iii)**: Under the Village Adoption Scheme, bank branches adopted villages to intensively meet their credit and financial needs, which is a direct mechanism of financial inclusion.
4. **Liberalization of the economy, 1991 (iv)**: The primary objective of liberalization was to improve economic efficiency, deregulate industries, and integrate India with the global economy. It was not a policy targeted directly at achieving financial inclusion.
Therefore, only (i), (ii), and (iii) are considered direct steps taken to achieve financial inclusion, making option **b** the correct choice.
The Stock Market deals in which of the following?
A)
Short term securities
B)
Long term securities
C)
Both long term and short term securities
D)
Only secured bonds
The stock market is a major component of the capital market, which deals with long-term securities (such as equity shares, preference shares, and debentures) that have a maturity period of more than one year. In contrast, short-term securities (with a maturity of less than one year, like Treasury Bills and Commercial Paper) are traded in the Money Market, making options 'a' and 'c' incorrect. Option 'd' is incorrect because the stock market deals with a wide variety of instruments, including equities (which represent ownership and are not secured bonds).
Which Chinese strategy has raised concerns for India in the Indian Ocean Region?
A)
Green Belt Movement
B)
String of Pearls
C)
Jasmine Revolution
D)
Operation Ocean Ridge
The correct option is 'b' (String of Pearls). This term refers to a geopolitical strategy involving a network of Chinese military and commercial facilities and relationships along its sea lines of communication, extending through the Indian Ocean Region. This network effectively encircles India, raising significant strategic and security concerns for the country. Other options are incorrect because: 'a' (Green Belt Movement) is an environmental organization in Kenya; 'c' (Jasmine Revolution) refers to the 2011 popular uprising in Tunisia; and 'd' (Operation Ocean Ridge) is not a recognized Chinese strategy.
The Governor in the State possesses the following powers and functions (i) Financial (ii) Military (iii) Judicial (iv) Emergency Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
B)
(i) and (iii) only
C)
(ii) and (iv) only
D)
(iii) and (iv) only
The Governor of a State in India possesses Executive, Legislative, Financial, and Judicial powers, but does not possess Military or Emergency powers.
1. **Financial Powers (i)**: The Governor ensures that the Annual Financial Statement (State Budget) is laid before the State Legislature, and Money Bills can only be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with their prior recommendation.
2. **Judicial Powers (iii)**: The Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, and remissions of punishment, and is consulted by the President of India when appointing judges to the State High Court.
3. **Military (ii) and Emergency (iv) Powers**: These powers are exclusively vested in the President of India. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces (Military power) and has the authority to declare national, state, or financial emergencies (Emergency power). While a Governor can recommend the imposition of President's Rule in a state, the actual emergency power lies with the President.
The constitution of India came into force on:
A)
January 15, 1950
B)
January 18, 1950
C)
January 26, 1950
D)
January 30, 1950
The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950, which is celebrated annually as Republic Day. This date was specifically chosen to commemorate the 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) declaration by the Indian National Congress in 1930. Although the Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, it officially commenced on this day. The other dates (January 15, January 18, and January 30, 1950) have no historical relevance to the commencement of the Indian Constitution.