← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
Ganga proper is formed by the confluence of two rivers at Deva Prayag. Choose the correct pair in repose to this statement.
A)
Pindar - Gomit
B)
Alakananda – Pindar
C)
Bharirati – Gomit
D)
Bhagirati – Alakananda
The river Ganga is formed by the confluence of the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers at Devprayag in Uttarakhand. From this point onward, the combined stream is known as the Ganga. Therefore, option 'd' is correct. Option 'b' is incorrect because the confluence of the Alaknanda and Pindar rivers occurs at Karnaprayag. Options 'a' and 'c' are incorrect as 'Gomit' (Gomti) is a separate tributary and does not meet at Devprayag to form the Ganga.
Who said that distortion of religion and misinterpretation of history and culture did more harm to Indian social life than foreign invasions and domination for centuries
A)
M.N. Roy
B)
Dr B.R. Ambedkar
C)
Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
D)
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar made this statement emphasizing that the internal social evils, caste discrimination, and untouchability—which were justified through the distortion of religious scriptures and the misinterpretation of history and culture—inflicted far greater and more lasting damage on Indian society than centuries of foreign invasions and colonial rule. He strongly advocated that social reform and the annihilation of caste were prerequisites for any real political freedom.
- **M.N. Roy (Option a)** was a Marxist and radical humanist philosopher who focused on scientific rationalism and individual freedom, rather than framing social critique in this specific historical-religious context.
- **Sri Aurobindo Ghosh (Option c)** was a spiritual philosopher and nationalist who defended Indian culture and spirituality against Western critiques, rather than prioritizing internal religious distortion over foreign domination as the primary source of harm.
- **Gopal Krishna Gokhale (Option d)** was a moderate leader who focused on constitutional methods, administrative reforms, and education within the British framework, rather than a radical critique of historical and religious distortions.
Which of the following statement is correct with regard to involvement of caste in Indian political System?
A)
Caste plays no role at all in Indian politics
B)
The issue of casteism in Indian politics is exaggerated by the critics
C)
State politics in India has been particularly the hot bed of political casteism.
D)
Casteism is prevalent in tribal dominated states of North East India.
Option 'c' is correct because state-level politics in India has historically been the primary arena where caste-based mobilization, alliances, and voting patterns are most intensely played out (e.g., in states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Tamil Nadu). Option 'a' is incorrect because caste plays a highly significant and undeniable role in Indian politics. Option 'b' is incorrect because casteism is a deeply entrenched structural reality in Indian elections, not an exaggeration. Option 'd' is incorrect because in the tribal-dominated states of Northeast India, political dynamics are driven by tribal and ethnic identities rather than the traditional caste system.
The sudden increase in the production of edible oils due to plantation of hybrid oil seeds was known as-
A)
White Revolution
B)
Green Revolution
C)
Yellow Revolution
D)
Brown Revolution
The correct option is 'c' (Yellow Revolution). The Yellow Revolution was launched in 1986-1987 to increase the production of edible oilseeds, particularly mustard, sesame, and groundnut, to achieve self-reliance in edible oil production.
Here is why the other options are incorrect:
- **White Revolution (Option a):** This refers to the massive increase in milk production in India, also known as Operation Flood, led by Dr. Verghese Kurien.
- **Green Revolution (Option b):** This refers to the period of great increase in the production of food grains (especially wheat and rice) introduced in the late 1960s using high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds.
- **Brown Revolution (Option d):** This is associated with the promotion of leather production, cocoa, or non-conventional energy sources.
Read the following statements: 1. Lakshadweep Islands are generally coral origin 2. Andaman & Nicobar group of Islands are coral origin 3. Lakshadweep Islands are coral origin and developed around volcanic peak. Choose the correct option
A)
Both 1 and 2 are correct
B)
Only 2 is correct
C)
1 and 3 are correct, 3 is the correct explanation of 1
D)
Only one is correct
Based on established principles in Geography, the correct and most appropriate choice is 'Only 2 is correct' (Option B).
India ranks....in Global Hunger Index in 2018:
A)
101st
B)
102nd
C)
103rd
D)
104th
In the 2018 Global Hunger Index (GHI), India was ranked 103rd out of 119 qualifying countries, with a score of 31.1, categorizing its hunger level as 'serious'. Option 'a' (101st) is incorrect as India held this rank in 2021. Option 'b' (102nd) is incorrect as India ranked 102nd in 2019. Option 'd' (104th) is incorrect as it does not represent India's rank in the 2018 index.
First Five Year Plan was based on:
A)
Harrod Domar Model
B)
Mahalanobis Model
C)
Gadgil Model
D)
Nehruvian Model
The First Five Year Plan (1951–1956) of India was based on the Harrod-Domar Model, which suggested that economic growth rate depends on the level of savings and the capital-output ratio. It primarily focused on the agricultural sector, irrigation, and power projects to address food shortages.
- Option 'b' (Mahalanobis Model) is incorrect because it formed the basis of the Second Five Year Plan (1956–1961), which focused on rapid industrialization and heavy industries.
- Option 'c' (Gadgil Model) is incorrect as the Gadgil formula was formulated for distributing plan assistance to states, notably during the Third and Fourth Plans.
- Option 'd' (Nehruvian Model) is incorrect as it refers to the broader socio-economic ideology of a mixed economy with state-led heavy industrialization, which became prominent from the Second Plan onwards.
Developmental administration which focuses upon socio-economic development for the people is the administrative responsibility of the
A)
Bureaucracy
B)
Politicians
C)
Civil societies
D)
None of these
Development administration refers to the administration of development programs, policies, and projects aimed at socio-economic progress. The bureaucracy (civil service) is the formal administrative machinery of the state tasked with the execution and implementation of these developmental policies, making it their primary administrative responsibility. Politicians (Option b) are primarily responsible for policy formulation and political leadership rather than administrative execution. Civil societies (Option c) act as facilitators, watchdogs, and pressure groups but do not carry the formal administrative responsibility of state-led development.
NABARD was established in 1982 on the recommendation of:
A)
Rangarajan Committee
B)
Sivaraman Committee
C)
Narashimhan Committee
D)
Tendulkar Committee
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established on 12 July 1982 on the recommendation of the B. Sivaraman Committee (also known as the Committee to Review Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development - CRAFICARD). Here is why the other options are incorrect:
- Rangarajan Committee (Option a) is primarily associated with poverty estimation and financial inclusion.
- Narasimhan Committee (Option c) is renowned for recommending major reforms in the Indian banking sector.
- Tendulkar Committee (Option d) was constituted to formulate a methodology for estimating poverty in India.
Identify which one is not related to agricultural price policy:
A)
Buffer Stock
B)
Import Price
C)
Support Price
D)
Licensing
Licensing is not related to agricultural price policy. It is a regulatory tool used primarily in industrial and trade policies to control business operations and market entry. On the other hand, Buffer Stock (a) is used to stabilize prices by storing surplus crops and releasing them during shortages; Support Price (c), such as Minimum Support Price (MSP), directly guarantees a minimum income to farmers; and Import Price (b) influences domestic agricultural prices through trade tariffs and import regulations.
In terms of area, which river system represented the largest drainage system in Mizoram?
A)
Chhimtuipui River
B)
Tuirial River
C)
Tlawng River
D)
Tuivai River
The Chhimtuipui River (also known as the Kaladan River) is the largest river system in Mizoram in terms of both drainage area and water volume. It originates in Myanmar, flows through the southern part of Mizoram, and eventually empties into the Bay of Bengal. In contrast, the Tlawng River (Option c) is the longest river in Mizoram but has a smaller drainage basin. The Tuirial River (Option b) and Tuivai River (Option d) are other significant rivers in the state but cover much smaller drainage areas compared to the Chhimtuipui.
Which amendment of the Constitution of India is regarded as Mini-Constitution?
A)
Constitution 40th Amendment Act, 1976
B)
Constitution 41st Amendment Act, 1976
C)
Constitution 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
D)
Constitution 43rd Amendment Act, 1977
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 is widely regarded as the 'Mini-Constitution' of India because it introduced the most comprehensive and sweeping changes to the Constitution. Enacted during the Emergency under the Indira Gandhi government, it added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble, inserted a new chapter on Fundamental Duties (Part IVA), and significantly altered the powers of the judiciary and Parliament.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option a (40th Amendment Act, 1976): This amendment primarily dealt with vesting the Parliament with the power to specify the limits of India's territorial waters, continental shelf, and exclusive economic zone (EEZ), and placed certain laws in the Ninth Schedule.
- Option b (41st Amendment Act, 1976): This amendment raised the retirement age of members of State Public Service Commissions and Joint Public Service Commissions from 60 to 62 years.
- Option d (43rd Amendment Act, 1977): This amendment was enacted by the post-Emergency Janata government to repeal some of the controversial provisions introduced by the 42nd Amendment, particularly restoring the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
Choose the correct statement from following
A)
The Northern Plain is formed before Peninsular India
B)
The Northern Plain came into existence during and after the Pleistocene Period
C)
Siwalik range represents the oldest landform in Himalayas
D)
Siwalik range is the eastern extension of Zaskar range
The correct statement is option (b). Here is the detailed breakdown:
1. **Why 'b' is correct**: The Northern Plains of India were formed by the deposition of alluvium brought down by the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra rivers into a deep depression. This geological process occurred during the Pleistocene and Holocene epochs, meaning the plains came into existence during and after the Pleistocene Period.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option 'a'**: Peninsular India is one of the oldest and most stable landmasses on Earth (dating back to the Precambrian era), whereas the Northern Plain is a very young geological feature formed much later.
- **Option 'c'**: The Siwalik range is the outermost and youngest range of the Himalayas (formed during the late Miocene to Pleistocene), while the Great Himalayas are the oldest.
- **Option 'd'**: The Zaskar range is part of the Trans-Himalayan system in the north, whereas the Siwalik range is the southernmost Outer Himalayan range. They are distinct and Siwalik is not an extension of the Zaskar range.
Which one of the following is a federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
A)
Single Election Commission
B)
Appointment of Judges of the High Court by the President
C)
Distribution of powers between Union Government and State Government by the constitution
D)
Appointment of Governor of the State by the President of India
The distribution of powers between the Union and State governments (as detailed in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution) is a core federal feature. It establishes a dual polity where both levels of government derive their authority directly from the Constitution and operate independently within their legislative spheres. In contrast, the other options represent unitary features of the Indian Constitution: a Single Election Commission (option a) centralizes the electoral process; the appointment of High Court Judges by the President (option b) reflects an integrated judiciary; and the appointment of the State Governor by the President (option d) allows the Centre to exercise control over state administration.
From the following statements, which is not associated with Dry Land farming in India?
A)
Very high crop yield
B)
Uncertainty of Monsoon
C)
Undulation soil surface
D)
Occurrence of frequent climatic hazards like drought, flood etc.
Dry land farming in India is characterized by low and highly unstable crop yields due to its complete dependence on erratic rainfall and the absence of assured irrigation facilities. Therefore, 'Very high crop yield' is not associated with dry land farming. On the other hand, the uncertainty of the monsoon (b), undulating soil surfaces leading to erosion (c), and frequent climatic hazards like droughts and dry spells (d) are all defining characteristics of dry land agriculture in India.
Sri Aurobindo Ghosh attempted to construct a synthesis of
A)
Gita and Bible
B)
Upanishad and Christian theology
C)
Western liberalism and Indian extremism
D)
The ancient Vedanta and modern European political philosophy
Sri Aurobindo Ghosh, a prominent Indian nationalist, philosopher, and yogi, sought to synthesize the spiritual insights of ancient Indian Vedanta with the rational, progressive, and evolutionary concepts of modern European political philosophy. He integrated the Vedantic concept of spiritual realization with Western ideas of liberty, nationalism, and social evolution to present a holistic philosophy of human unity and divine life. Options 'a' and 'b' are incorrect because his primary synthesis was not theological reconciliation with Christianity. Option 'c' is incorrect because his philosophical synthesis was much broader than just reconciling political factions or methods like liberalism and extremism.
The term ‘paper gold’ means
A)
Fiat money
B)
Special drawing rights
C)
Currencies still on gold
D)
Special accommodation facility of the World Bank
The term 'paper gold' refers to Special Drawing Rights (SDRs). SDRs are an international reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1969 to supplement its member countries' official reserves. They were nicknamed 'paper gold' because, at the time of their creation, their value was defined as equivalent to a specific amount of gold (0.888671 grams, which was also the value of one US dollar at the time), although they are not physical gold.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because fiat money is government-issued currency that is not backed by a physical commodity.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because it refers to currencies operating under the gold standard, which involves actual physical gold backing.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because SDRs are associated with the IMF, not the World Bank.
The Para-Military Force which has been established to deal with communal riots is
A)
Rapid Action Force (RAF)
B)
Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
C)
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
D)
Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
The Rapid Action Force (RAF) is a specialized wing of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), established in October 1992 specifically to deal with communal riots, riot-like situations, and to restore public order with minimal force. Other options are incorrect because: Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is a broad internal security force, of which RAF is a specialized sub-wing; Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) is dedicated to securing critical infrastructure, airports, and public sector undertakings; and Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) is a border guarding force deployed along the India-China border.
The Parliament of India consists of
A)
The Speaker and the two houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People
B)
The President and the two houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People
C)
The Vice President and the two houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People
D)
None of these
According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of the Union consists of the President and the two Houses, known respectively as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Therefore, option 'b' is correct. Option 'a' is incorrect because the Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, not a constituent part of the Parliament. Option 'c' is incorrect because the Vice President, while being the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, is not a constituent part of the Parliament under Article 79.
Balance sheet shows-
A)
Assets
B)
Liabilities
C)
Both assets and liabilities
D)
Neither of them
A balance sheet is a fundamental financial statement that reports a company's financial position at a specific point in time. It is based on the accounting equation: Assets = Liabilities + Shareholders' Equity. Therefore, it must show both assets and liabilities, making option 'c' the correct choice. Options 'a' and 'b' are incorrect because they are incomplete on their own, as a balance sheet cannot show one without the other. Option 'd' is incorrect because assets and liabilities are the primary components of a balance sheet.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak raised strong objection to the social reformism of Justice Ranade, Gopal Krishna Gokhale and their associate because
A)
They wanted to remake India totally on the image of the west
B)
They rejected Hindu view of life
C)
They did not fight for independence of India
D)
They promoted liberal ideology
Bal Gangadhar Tilak strongly opposed the social reform methods of moderates like Justice Ranade and Gopal Krishna Gokhale because he believed their reformist agenda was heavily influenced by Western ideals and aimed to reconstruct Indian society entirely on the model of Western civilization. Tilak argued that such reforms undermined indigenous culture, pride, and self-respect, and that social reforms should emerge organically from within Hindu society rather than being imposed by a foreign colonial government or modeled blindly on the West.
* **Why other options are incorrect:**
* **b is incorrect** because the moderates did not reject the Hindu view of life; they merely sought to reform its social evils (such as child marriage and caste discrimination) to strengthen society.
* **c is incorrect** because the moderates did fight for India's political rights and self-governance, though they used constitutional and peaceful methods rather than extremist ones.
* **d is incorrect** because while they did promote liberal ideology, Tilak's specific objection to their social reformism was its reliance on Western imitation and British legislation, rather than the promotion of liberal values themselves.
Who was Secretary of the Deccan Education Society
A)
M.G. Ranade
B)
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C)
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
D)
G.G. Agarkar
Gopal Krishna Gokhale joined the Deccan Education Society in 1886 as a life member and served as its Secretary for several years, also teaching at Fergusson College. Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) and G.G. Agarkar (d) were among the prominent co-founders of the society in 1884, but Tilak resigned in 1890 due to ideological differences. M.G. Ranade (a) acted as a mentor and patron to the founders but did not serve as the Secretary.
What is the main criteria for recognition of political party as national party in India
A)
A political party should have branches and units in all the states of India
B)
A political party should form government at least in three states
C)
A political party should have at least one member each in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
D)
A political party should get at least six percent of the valid votes polled in four or more states at the general election to Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assembly
According to the Election Commission of India's criteria (and standard NCERT guidelines), a political party is recognized as a national party if it secures at least 6% of the valid votes polled in four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or the Legislative Assembly, and in addition, wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because having branches or units in all states is not a formal legal requirement for recognition.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because forming a government in three states is not a criterion; recognition is based on vote share and legislative presence.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because having just one member in each house of Parliament does not meet the threshold required for national party status.
Fundamental Rights are incorporated between which of the following articles of the Constitution of India
A)
Article 11 – Article 33
B)
Article 11- Article 34
C)
Article 12- Article 36
D)
Article 12- Article 35
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India, spanning from Article 12 to Article 35. These rights are inspired by the Constitution of the USA (Bill of Rights). Article 12 defines the 'State' and Article 35 deals with the power of Parliament to make laws to give effect to the provisions of this Part. Options 'a' and 'b' are incorrect because Article 11 belongs to Part II (Citizenship). Option 'c' is incorrect because Article 36 marks the beginning of Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy).
Servant of India Society was established by which of the following Indian political thinkers
A)
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B)
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C)
M.N. Roy
D)
Swami Dayananda Saraswati
The Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale on June 12, 1905, in Pune, Maharashtra, to promote education, sanitation, healthcare, and to fight social evils like untouchability.
- Option 'b' (Bal Gangadhar Tilak) is incorrect as he was a prominent extremist leader who co-founded the Deccan Education Society and the All India Home Rule League.
- Option 'c' (M.N. Roy) is incorrect as he was a pioneer of the communist movement in India and founded the Radical Democratic Party.
- Option 'd' (Swami Dayananda Saraswati) is incorrect as he was a social reformer who founded the Arya Samaj in 1875.