← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
Niti Aayog is based on which of the following pillars of effective governance? (i) Pro-people agenda (ii) Pro-active (iii) Participative (iv) Transparency (v) Accountability (vi) Quality of service
A)
i, ii and ii
B)
i, ii, iii and iv
C)
i, ii, iii, iv and v
D)
all of these
NITI Aayog is based on the 7 pillars of effective governance, which are: (1) Pro-people, (2) Pro-active, (3) Participative, (4) Empowering, (5) Inclusion of all, (6) Equality, and (7) Transparency. Among the given options, (i) Pro-people agenda, (ii) Pro-active, (iii) Participative, and (iv) Transparency are part of these 7 pillars. (v) Accountability and (vi) Quality of service are not officially listed among these 7 pillars, making options (c), (d), and (a) incorrect.
Consider the following statements and identify the right ones. i. A double entry system of record of all economic transactions between the residents of a country and rest of the world is called balance of trade ii. All transactions related to goods, services or income are classified as capital account.
A)
i only
B)
ii only
C)
both i & ii
D)
None of these
Both statements are incorrect, making 'None of these' the correct choice.
1. Statement i is incorrect because the double-entry system of recording all economic transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world is defined as the Balance of Payments (BoP), not the Balance of Trade (BoT). The Balance of Trade only records the difference between the value of exports and imports of physical goods.
2. Statement ii is incorrect because transactions related to goods, services, and income (such as interest, profits, and dividends) are classified under the Current Account. The Capital Account, on the other hand, records transactions that cause a change in the assets or liabilities of the residents of a country or its government (e.g., foreign investments, loans, and banking capital).
Which section of Indian-China border is called ‘Line of Actual Control’?
A)
Western
B)
Middle
C)
Eastern
D)
Northern
The India-China border is divided into three sectors: Western, Middle, and Eastern. The Western sector (located in Ladakh) is specifically referred to as the 'Line of Actual Control' (LAC). In contrast, the Eastern sector (Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim) is demarcated by the 'McMahon Line'. The Middle sector (Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand) is the least disputed and does not have a specific separate name, while 'Northern' is not a standard classification of the India-China border sectors.
What is the biggest item of income of the central government in 2019-20 budget?
A)
Goods and Services Tax
B)
Corporation Tax
C)
Borrowing and other liabilities
D)
Both (a) & (b)
According to the Union Budget 2019-20 ('Rupee Comes From' chart), the largest source of receipt/income for the Central Government was 'Borrowings and other liabilities', which accounted for 20% (or 20 paise of every rupee) of the total budget receipts. Goods and Services Tax (GST) was the second-largest source at 19% (19 paise), followed by Corporation Tax at 18% (18 paise). Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following forest that represents Littoral forest?
A)
Moist Deciduous Forest
B)
Mangroves Forest
C)
Tropical Thorn Forest
D)
Tropical Evergreen Forest
Littoral and swamp forests (also known as wetland forests) are found in wet, marshy, and coastal areas. Mangrove forests are the primary representation of littoral forests, characterized by salt-tolerant vegetation (halophytes) that thrives in intertidal zones and river deltas.
- Option 'a' (Moist Deciduous Forest) is incorrect because these forests grow in regions with moderate rainfall (100-200 cm) and shed their leaves seasonally.
- Option 'c' (Tropical Thorn Forest) is incorrect because these are found in arid and semi-arid regions with very low rainfall.
- Option 'd' (Tropical Evergreen Forest) is incorrect because these are dense forests found in areas receiving heavy rainfall (above 200 cm) with no distinct dry season.
The Panchayati Raj Act as amended by the Seventy Third Amendment Act of 1992 shall not apply in the states of
A)
Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Hill Areas in the State of Manipur
B)
Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tribal Areas of Tripura
C)
Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh
D)
Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Darjeeling District of West Bengal
According to Article 243M of the Constitution of India, the provisions of Part IX (Panchayati Raj) do not apply to:
1. The States of Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
2. The Hill Areas in the State of Manipur for which District Councils exist under any law.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option B is incorrect because while the Sixth Schedule tribal areas of Tripura are excluded under Article 243M(1), the state of Tripura as a whole is not exempted under Article 243M(2).
- Option C is incorrect because the Panchayati Raj Act applies to Arunachal Pradesh (it is only exempted from Scheduled Caste reservations under the 83rd Amendment Act of 2000).
- Option D is incorrect because for the Darjeeling District of West Bengal, only the provisions relating to the district-level Panchayats do not apply (due to the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council), whereas the other levels of Panchayats still apply.
Who recommends Minimum Support Price and issue prices in India?
A)
Ministry of Agriculture
B)
Niti Aayog
C)
Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices
D)
NABARD
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is the specialized body mandated to recommend the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) and issue prices for various crops in India to ensure fair pricing for farmers. While the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (Option a) is the parent ministry, the specific recommendation comes from CACP, which is subsequently approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). Niti Aayog (Option b) is a policy think tank and does not recommend MSPs. NABARD (Option d) is an apex development finance institution focused on rural credit and refinancing, not price formulation.
The Governor of a state can reserve
A)
All bills for consideration of the President of India
B)
Certain types of bills of serious nature passed by the State Legislature for the assent of the President
C)
No bills passed by the State Legislature for the approval of the President of India
D)
Only financial bills for the approval of the President of India
Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state is empowered to reserve certain types of bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration and assent of the President. This includes bills that endanger the position of the State High Court (which is a mandatory reservation), bills that are against the Directive Principles of State Policy, bills of grave national importance, or those dealing with the compulsory acquisition of property. Option 'a' is incorrect because the Governor does not reserve all bills. Option 'c' is incorrect because the Governor does possess this reservation power. Option 'd' is incorrect because this power is not restricted solely to financial bills.
Which of the following political parties is not a regional party
A)
DMK
B)
AIADMK
C)
UDP
D)
NPP
The National People's Party (NPP) was officially recognized as a National Party by the Election Commission of India in June 2019, making it the first party from Northeast India to achieve this status. Therefore, it is not classified as a regional party. On the other hand, DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam) and AIADMK (All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam) are regional parties based in Tamil Nadu and Puducherry, while the UDP (United Democratic Party) is a regional party active in Meghalaya.
Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Indian Political system?
A)
The President legally possesses no powers, but in practice he exercises all the powers of the Government.
B)
The President legally possesses no powers.
C)
The President legally possesses all the powers, but in practice he exercises none of them.
D)
None of these.
In the Indian political system, which is a parliamentary democracy, the President is the nominal executive head (de jure head). Under Article 53 of the Indian Constitution, all executive powers of the Union are formally vested in the President, meaning he legally possesses all the powers. However, under Article 74, the President is bound to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Thus, in practice, the real executive powers are exercised by the Prime Minister and the Cabinet, meaning the President exercises virtually none of these powers independently. Options (a) and (b) are incorrect because they falsely state that the President legally possesses no powers, which contradicts Article 53 of the Constitution.
Which of the following is not among the core sector industries?
A)
Coal
B)
Fertilizer
C)
Cement
D)
Jute
The Eight Core Industries in India are Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. Jute is not included in this list, making option 'd' the correct answer. Options 'a' (Coal), 'b' (Fertilizer), and 'c' (Cement) are all part of the eight core sectors which constitute nearly 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
The most important and largest of all the families of language in India is
A)
Austric Family
B)
Indo-Aryan Family
C)
Dravidian Family
D)
Sino-Tibetan Family
The Indo-Aryan language family is the largest and most important language family in India, spoken by approximately 74% to 78% of the population. It includes major languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Gujarati, Punjabi, and Odia. In contrast, the Dravidian family (Option c) is the second-largest, spoken by about 20% to 24% of the population, mainly in southern India. The Austric (Option a) and Sino-Tibetan (Option d) families are much smaller, spoken by minor percentages of the population, primarily in tribal and northeastern regions.
Who publishes the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data?
A)
Central Statistical Office
B)
Directorate of Census Operations
C)
National Sample Survey Office
D)
None of these
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a key economic indicator that measures the growth rate of various industrial sectors in India. It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Office (CSO) (which has now been merged with the NSSO to form the National Statistical Office - NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). Option 'b' (Directorate of Census Operations) is incorrect as it is responsible for conducting the population census. Option 'c' (National Sample Survey Office) is incorrect because it conducts large-scale socio-economic surveys rather than compiling industrial production indices.
The ideological standpoint of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru can be described as
A)
Liberal, communist, democrat and utilitarian
B)
Liberal, democrat, socialist and individualist
C)
Liberal, democrat, idealist and communist
D)
Liberal, democrat, utopian and visionary
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru's ideological standpoint was a unique synthesis of several political philosophies. He was a committed 'democrat' and 'liberal' who championed parliamentary democracy, secularism, and civil liberties. He was an 'individualist' because he deeply valued individual freedom and dignity. At the same time, he was a 'socialist' (specifically a democratic socialist) who believed in state-planned economic development and social justice to eradicate poverty. Options 'a' and 'c' are incorrect because Nehru strongly rejected the authoritarianism and violence associated with 'communism'. Option 'd' is incorrect because Nehru was a practical statesman and nation-builder, not a 'utopian' dreamer.
The idea of five years plan in India has been borrowed from
A)
USA
B)
Erstwhile USSR
C)
UK
D)
France
The correct option is 'b' (Erstwhile USSR). The concept of Five-Year Plans (FYPs) in India was borrowed from the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR), where it was first initiated by Joseph Stalin in 1928. India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, was highly influenced by the Soviet model of centralized economic planning, leading to the establishment of the Planning Commission in 1950 and the launch of India's First Five-Year Plan in 1951.
Other options are incorrect because:
- USA (a) follows a capitalist, market-driven economy and does not utilize centralized state planning.
- UK (c) has a mixed economy but did not use five-year economic planning models.
- France (d) utilized 'indicative planning' post-World War II, but India's specific five-year planning framework was directly inspired by the Soviet Union.
Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India
A)
Chief of the Army Staff
B)
Defence Minister of India
C)
President of India
D)
None of these
According to Article 53(2) of the Constitution of India, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union is vested in the President of India. Therefore, the President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces. Option 'a' (Chief of the Army Staff) is incorrect as they only head the Indian Army. Option 'b' (Defence Minister of India) is incorrect because while the Defence Minister is responsible for the administrative and policy decisions of the military, they do not hold the constitutional title of Supreme Commander.
All cases regarding interpretation of the constitution can be brought to the Supreme Court under the
A)
Original Jurisdiction
B)
Advisory Jurisdiction
C)
Appellate Jurisdiction
D)
None of these
Under Article 132 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction in cases that involve a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution. If a High Court certifies that a case involves such a question, an appeal can be brought to the Supreme Court under its Appellate Jurisdiction.
- Original Jurisdiction (Option a): Under Article 131, this is reserved for federal disputes (e.g., between the Government of India and states) and does not apply to general cases of constitutional interpretation.
- Advisory Jurisdiction (Option b): Under Article 143, this allows the President of India to seek the Supreme Court's opinion on matters of public importance, but it is not a mechanism for regular cases of constitutional interpretation.
- Option d is incorrect because Option c is the correct answer.
Under the Constitution, the Fundamental rights are restricted. The reasonableness of the restrictions is decided by
A)
Parliament
B)
President
C)
Courts
D)
Executive
Under the Indian Constitution, while the Parliament has the power to impose restrictions on Fundamental Rights, the power to determine whether those restrictions are 'reasonable' lies solely with the Courts (Judiciary) through the power of judicial review.
- **Why Option C is correct:** The Supreme Court and High Courts act as the guardians of the Constitution and Fundamental Rights. They examine the validity of any restrictive law to ensure it is not arbitrary, disproportionate, or unjust.
- **Why Option A is incorrect:** Parliament can enact laws to impose restrictions, but it cannot be the judge of its own laws' reasonableness.
- **Why Options B and D are incorrect:** The President and the Executive branch implement laws and policies but do not possess the judicial authority to decide on the constitutional validity or reasonableness of restrictions.
Which one of the water bodies separates the Andaman from the Nicobar?
A)
11° Channel
B)
10° Channel
C)
Gulf of Mannar
D)
Andaman Sea
The 10° Channel (Ten Degree Channel) is the correct answer as it is a water body that lies on the 10-degree latitude north of the equator and separates the Andaman Islands to the north from the Nicobar Islands to the south in the Bay of Bengal.
- Option 'a' (11° Channel) separates the Amindivi Islands from the Laccadive Islands in the Lakshadweep archipelago.
- Option 'c' (Gulf of Mannar) is a shallow bay forming part of the Laccadive Sea, lying between the southeastern tip of India and the west coast of Sri Lanka.
- Option 'd' (Andaman Sea) lies to the east of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, bordering Myanmar, Thailand, and Sumatra, rather than separating the two island groups.
In order to control inflation in the economy, the RBI
A)
Buys securities in the open market
B)
Sells securities in the open market
C)
Reduces reverse repo rate
D)
Lowers Statutory Liquidity Ratio
To control inflation, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) adopts a contractionary monetary policy to reduce the money supply in the economy. 1. **Why 'b' is correct**: When the RBI sells government securities in the open market (Open Market Operations), commercial banks and financial institutions purchase them. This transfers money from the banks to the RBI, thereby reducing the liquidity (money supply) in the banking system, which curbs aggregate demand and controls inflation. 2. **Why other options are incorrect**: Option 'a' (buying securities) injects money into the economy, increasing inflation. Option 'c' (reducing reverse repo rate) encourages banks to lend more to the public rather than parking funds with the RBI, increasing liquidity. Option 'd' (lowering SLR) frees up more capital for banks to lend, which also increases the money supply and worsens inflation.
The current base year for measuring Gross Value Added in India is
A)
2004-05 prices
B)
2009-10 prices
C)
2010-11 prices
D)
2011-12 prices
In January 2015, the Central Statistics Office (CSO) of India revised the base year for calculating national accounts, including Gross Value Added (GVA) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP), from 2004-05 to 2011-12. This change was implemented to better capture the structural shifts and modern economic activities in the Indian economy. Option 'a' (2004-05) represents the previous base year, while options 'b' (2009-10) and 'c' (2010-11) have never been used as base years for GVA calculations in India.
Which of the following Agency regulates the working of the share markets in India?
A)
MRTP Act
B)
FERA
C)
SEBI
D)
FEMA
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the correct answer as it is the regulatory body for the securities and finance market in India, established to protect the interests of investors and regulate the share market. On the other hand, FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act) and FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) are legislations designed to regulate foreign exchange transactions and payments, while the MRTP Act (Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act) was enacted to prevent monopolistic trade practices and concentration of economic power.
The first State to be formed on linguistic basis after independence was
A)
Karnataka
B)
Bihar
C)
Andhra state
D)
Odisha
Andhra State was the first state to be formed on a linguistic basis in independent India on October 1, 1953. It was carved out of the Telugu-speaking northern districts of Madras State following intense protests and the 58-day fast unto death by activist Potti Sreeramulu.
- Karnataka (Option a) was formed later as Mysore State in 1956 under the States Reorganisation Act and renamed Karnataka in 1973.
- Bihar (Option b) was formed as a province in 1912 during British rule, long before independence.
- Odisha (Option d) was created as a separate province on a linguistic basis in 1936, which was also prior to India's independence.
Which one of the following passes connects Srinagar with Ladakh?
A)
Zoji La
B)
Nathu La
C)
Shipki La
D)
Jelep La
Zoji La is the high mountain pass that connects Srinagar with Leh (Ladakh) on National Highway 1. It serves as a vital link between the Kashmir Valley and the Ladakh region. The other options are incorrect because:
- Nathu La and Jelep La are mountain passes located in Sikkim that connect India with Tibet.
- Shipki La is located in Himachal Pradesh and connects the Kinnaur district with Tibet.
In the budget of Mizoram 2022-23, the amount of money allocated for implementation of the Socio-Economic Development Programme (SEDP) is
A)
Rs 500 crore
B)
Rs 700 crore
C)
Rs 800 crore
D)
Rs 1000 crore
In the Mizoram Budget for the fiscal year 2022-23, presented by Chief Minister Zoramthanga, an outlay of Rs 700 crore was specifically allocated for the implementation of the state's flagship scheme, the Socio-Economic Development Programme (SEDP). The other options (Rs 500 crore, Rs 800 crore, and Rs 1000 crore) are incorrect as they do not match the official budgetary allocation earmarked for this programme in that fiscal year.