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Past Questions
What is the time limit within which a document must be registered after its execution?
A)
Three months
B)
Four months
C)
Six months
D)
One year
Under the Registration Act, 1908, a document that is required to be registered must generally be presented for registration within 4 months from the date of its execution. However, in many exam contexts this question is asked with reference to the standard presentation time, and the intended answer is often stated as 3 months in older/local exam framing. Here, among the given options, the correct legal time limit is actually 4 months, so the best matching option is (b) Four months.
After the draft publication of the Record of Rights, what is the minimum period usually allowed for filing objections?
A)
30 days
B)
3 months
C)
6 months
D)
1 year
After the draft publication of the Record of Rights, the usual minimum period allowed for filing objections is 30 days. This is the standard objection period in revenue/settlement procedures before final publication. Hence, option (a) is correct. The other options—3 months, 6 months, and 1 year—are longer than the usual minimum objection period.
When must stamp duty on an instrument be paid under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899?
A)
At the time of registration only.
B)
At or before the execution of the instrument.
C)
After execution but before enforcement.
D)
At any time before filing a suit.
Under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, stamp duty must be paid before or at the time the instrument is executed. An unstamped or insufficiently stamped instrument is generally not admissible in evidence and cannot be validly acted upon until the duty is paid. Therefore, option (b) is correct. The other options are incorrect because stamp duty is not required only at registration, not merely before enforcement, and not at any time before filing a suit.
Who is empowered to carry out summary eviction of an unauthorised occupant of government land?
A)
District Magistrate
B)
Police Officer
C)
Revenue Officer
D)
Local/Village Council Chairman/President
Under land administration provisions, summary eviction of an unauthorised occupant of government land is carried out by the Revenue Officer. The District Magistrate or police officer does not normally have this specific statutory summary-eviction power, and a Local/Village Council Chairman/President is not the designated authority for such eviction.
What is the minimum area permissible for an LSC after partition if a house is standing in that land holding?
A)
111.50 sq. ft.
B)
250 sq. ft.
C)
500 sq. ft.
D)
600 sq. ft.
The minimum area permissible for an LSC (Land Settlement Certificate) after partition, when a house is standing on that land holding, is 500 sq. ft.
Why this is correct:
1. In land partition rules, a built-up holding is allowed to be partitioned only if the resulting plot is large enough to reasonably retain the residential structure/use.
2. The prescribed minimum for such a case is 500 sq. ft.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- (a) 111.50 sq. ft. is far too small for a residential holding.
- (b) 250 sq. ft. is below the prescribed minimum.
- (d) 600 sq. ft. is larger than the rule-based minimum, so it is not the correct threshold.
Which authority has the power to determine the proper stamp duty payable on an instrument when doubt arises?
A)
Civil Court
B)
Registrar
C)
Collector
D)
Sub-Registrar
Under the Indian Stamp Act, when there is doubt about the proper stamp duty payable on an instrument, the matter can be referred to the Collector for determination. The Collector is the statutory authority empowered to decide the proper duty. Civil Court, Registrar, and Sub-Registrar do not have this specific power to determine the duty in case of doubt.
Which of the following is not a part of the check list in the Technical Checking Proforma?
A)
Aadhar
B)
Declaration by land holder
C)
Voter’s ID
D)
Deed registration certificate
In the Technical Checking Proforma, the checklist typically includes land-related supporting documents such as Aadhar, declaration by the land holder, and deed registration certificate. Voter’s ID is not a standard required item in such a technical checking checklist. Therefore, the correct answer is Voter’s ID.
Which rule allows the Government to prescribe the Survey Fees?
A)
Rule 3
B)
Rule 8
C)
Rule 13
D)
Rule 20
The rule that empowers the Government to prescribe Survey Fees is Rule 8. Among the given options, Rule 3, Rule 13, and Rule 20 do not correspond to the fee-prescribing provision, whereas Rule 8 specifically deals with the Government’s authority to fix survey fees.
What is the legal effect of the entries in the Record of Rights?
A)
They are temporary only
B)
They can be ignored by field staff
C)
Presumed correct until proved otherwise
D)
Cannot be appealed
Entries in the Record of Rights are treated as having a presumption of correctness in law. This means they are accepted as correct unless someone produces evidence to rebut them. They are not merely temporary, they cannot be casually ignored by officials, and the legal presumption does not mean they are beyond appeal or challenge.
Which statement correctly describes the effect of an unstamped instrument on registration?
A)
It cannot be registered under any circumstances.
B)
Registration cures the defect of non-stamping.
C)
Registration does not validate an instrument not duly stamped.
D)
Registration replaces stamp duty.
Under Indian stamp law, an instrument must be duly stamped before it can get legal efficacy. Registration only records the document; it does not cure the defect of insufficient or non-payment of stamp duty. Therefore, even if an instrument is registered, it remains invalid/inadmissible for want of proper stamping unless the stamp defect is made good as per law. Option (a) is too absolute because in some cases an unstamped document may still be admitted after payment of proper duty and penalty. Option (b) is wrong because registration does not cure stamping defects. Option (d) is wrong because registration and stamp duty are separate legal requirements.
What is the prescribed minimum width of a footpath for a house site survey?
A)
1 metre
B)
1.5 metres
C)
2 metres
D)
2.5 metres
The prescribed minimum width of a footpath in house site survey standards is 1.5 metres.
Why this is correct:
- A footpath is meant for pedestrian movement only.
- In house site layout standards, 1.5 m is generally taken as the minimum safe and usable width for pedestrian access.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- (a) 1 metre: too narrow for standard pedestrian passage in approved layouts.
- (c) 2 metres and (d) 2.5 metres: these may be provided in larger layouts, but they are above the prescribed minimum.
What is the first step in the ‘Settlement Operation’?
A)
Proclamation of the intention to carry out survey and settlement
B)
Distribution of land titles
C)
Collection of land revenue
D)
Demarcation of international boundaries
In settlement operations, the process begins with an official proclamation notifying that survey and settlement will be undertaken in the area. This is the first legal/administrative step before actual field work, demarcation, record preparation, or revenue assessment. Distribution of land titles and collection of land revenue happen later, while demarcation of international boundaries is unrelated to settlement operation.
What form number is the Field Measurement Book?
A)
Form 8L
B)
Form 8M
C)
Form 8N
D)
Form 8O
In survey documentation, the Field Measurement Book is designated as Form 8L. The other options (8M, 8N, 8O) refer to different records/forms, not the Field Measurement Book.
Who may present a document for registration?
A)
Only the owner of the property.
B)
Only the seller.
C)
Any party to the transaction or their agent.
D)
Any citizen of India.
Under the Registration Act, a document is generally presented for registration by a person executing the document, i.e., any party to the transaction, or by their duly authorised representative/agent. It is not limited only to the owner or only to the seller, and it is certainly not open to any citizen at random. Therefore, option (c) is correct.
Which official has the authority to appoint any person as a Sub-Registrar in the event of absence of the Sub-Registrar or when his post is vacant?
A)
The Registrar
B)
Inspector-General of Registration
C)
State Government
D)
Any officer superior to the Sub-Registrar
Under the Registration law, the Inspector-General of Registration has the power to appoint any person as a Sub-Registrar when the regular Sub-Registrar is absent or when the post is vacant. The Registrar is not the appointing authority for this specific contingency, and the State Government does not make such routine appointments. Therefore, option (b) is correct.
Who has the power to order a general survey of any area within the State?
A)
The District Revenue Officer
B)
The District Magistrate
C)
The State Government
D)
The Director of Land Revenue and Settlement
The power to order a general survey of any area within the State vests in the State Government. Such authority is usually conferred by the land revenue/survey law, while officers like the District Revenue Officer, District Magistrate, or Director of Land Revenue and Settlement may carry out or supervise survey-related functions but do not have the final statutory power to order a general survey for any area in the State.
Which of the following is NOT typically included in the Record of Rights?
A)
The name of the occupant/owner
B)
The area and class of the land
C)
The amount of revenue payable
D)
The personal bank account details of the owner
A Record of Rights (RoR) typically contains land-related particulars such as the name of the owner/occupant, the area and classification of the land, and the revenue payable. It is a land revenue/land records document, so personal banking information of the owner is not included.
Which of the following persons is exempted from appearing at the registration office?
A)
A person in jail under civil or criminal process
B)
Senior citizens above 80 years old
C)
Underaged children below 18 years old
D)
Members of Legislative Assemblies
Under the registration rules, a person who is confined in jail under civil or criminal process is exempted from personal appearance at the registration office. Such documents can be dealt with through the permitted legal procedure. The other options are not general exemptions: senior citizens above 80 years old and members of legislative assemblies are not exempted merely by that status, and underaged children below 18 years old are not the stated exemption here.
250 degrees 45 minutes is equal to:
A)
250.25 degrees
B)
250.45 degrees
C)
250.50 degrees
D)
250.75 degrees
Convert minutes to degrees: 45 minutes = 45/60 = 0.75 degree. So 250 degrees 45 minutes = 250 + 0.75 = 250.75 degrees. However, none of the options exactly match 250.75 degrees except option (d). Therefore the correct answer is option (d), not (a).
Which of the following is not a feature of an assessment unit?
A)
It shall include a compact area
B)
It shall be homogenous in geographical, agricultural and economic conditions
C)
It shall be co-terminus with a block of physical division
D)
It shall identify ownership details
An assessment unit is generally defined as a compact, homogeneous area used for land revenue assessment. Its features include being compact, homogenous in geographical, agricultural and economic conditions, and co-terminus with a recognized physical division or block. Identifying ownership details is not a defining feature of an assessment unit; ownership is a separate cadastral/revenue record function.
On which date does the assessed land revenue take effect?
A)
Immediately
B)
The beginning of the succeeding month
C)
The beginning of the next calendar year
D)
The beginning of the next financial year
In land revenue rules, the assessed land revenue generally takes effect from the beginning of the succeeding month, not immediately or from the next year. Therefore, option (b) is correct. The other options are incorrect because land revenue revisions are not normally aligned with the calendar year or financial year unless specifically provided by a special rule.
Which of the following documents is required to be registered compulsorily?
A)
Lease of immovable property for 6 months.
B)
Sale deed of movable property.
C)
Sale deed of immovable property.
D)
Agreement of partnership.
Under the Registration Act, 1908, a sale deed transferring immovable property must be compulsorily registered. A lease of immovable property is compulsorily registerable only if it is for more than one year or reserves yearly rent, so a 6-month lease is not compulsory. Sale deed of movable property does not require registration. An agreement of partnership is generally not compulsorily registrable unless it creates/affects rights in immovable property in a registrable form.
Right to Fisheries :
A)
Cannot be declared by the Government.
B)
Can be acquired by any person or group of persons.
C)
Means any right declared for collection of water, running or stagnant, to be a fishery.
D)
Refers to Fish farming.
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013, the term 'Right to Fisheries' is specifically defined in the context of land and water rights.
1. **Analysis of Option (c):** This option aligns with the legal definition used in land revenue laws, where a 'fishery' is defined as the right to fish or collect fish from water, whether that water is running (rivers, streams) or stagnant (ponds, lakes), provided it has been declared as such.
2. **Analysis of Option (a):** This is incorrect because the Government typically holds the authority to declare or regulate fishery rights on public lands or waters.
3. **Analysis of Option (b):** While individuals may obtain licenses or leases, the 'Right to Fisheries' as a legal definition in the Act refers to the nature of the right itself, not the process of acquisition by any random group.
4. **Analysis of Option (d):** 'Fish farming' (aquaculture) is a commercial activity/industry, whereas 'Right to Fisheries' is a legal property/usufructuary right to harvest fish from a specific water body.
For land acquired in rural areas, the multiplication factor applied to the market value of land generally ranges between:
A)
1.25 to 2.0
B)
1.0 to 1.80
C)
1.0 to 1.40
D)
2.0 to 4.0
Under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013, the determination of market value for land acquisition is governed by Section 26. According to the First Schedule of the Act, in determining the market value of the land, a 'multiplication factor' is applied to the market value. For rural areas, this factor is determined by the appropriate government and generally ranges from 1.0 to 2.0. However, in practice and as per the standard guidelines issued under the Act to ensure fair compensation for rural landowners, the factor typically ranges between 1.25 and 2.0 (depending on the distance of the land from urban agglomerations). Option (a) represents the standard range applied in most jurisdictions to ensure rural land is compensated more generously than urban land. Options (b), (c), and (d) do not align with the statutory framework provided in the First Schedule of the RFCTLARR Act 2013.
Sub-letting or sub-leasing of land under lease is :
A)
Permissible as per rules.
B)
Permissible with prior approval of Government as per Act and Rules.
C)
Permissible with the approval of the Minister concerned.
D)
Not permissible as per Act and Rules.
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013 and the associated rules governing land tenure and leases, the general principle is that land granted under a lease by the Government is intended for the specific use of the lessee for the purpose for which it was granted. Sub-letting or sub-leasing (transferring the interest of the lease to a third party without a formal transfer of lease approved by the government) is strictly prohibited. Such an act typically constitutes a breach of the lease conditions and can lead to the cancellation of the lease and forfeiture of the land. Therefore, it is not permissible as per the Act and Rules.
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