← MES Jr. Grade
Past Questions — 2025
Which of the following is not involved in the preparation of budget?
A)
Finance Ministry
B)
Finance Commission
C)
Niti Aayog
D)
Comptroller and Auditor-General
The preparation of the Union Budget is a planning and forecasting process.
1. Finance Ministry: This is the primary body responsible for preparing the budget. The Department of Economic Affairs and the Budget Division within the Ministry of Finance manage the entire process.
2. Finance Commission: It plays a crucial role in the budget preparation phase by recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States (vertical and horizontal devolution), which dictates the available funds for the central budget.
3. Niti Aayog: As the premier policy think-tank, Niti Aayog provides the strategic framework, long-term goals, and developmental priorities that guide the allocation of resources in the budget.
4. Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG): The CAG is an independent constitutional authority whose role is 'ex-post facto'. The CAG audits the expenditures AFTER they have been incurred to ensure accountability and transparency. The CAG does not participate in the preparation or planning of the budget; rather, it checks if the money spent aligns with the budget approved by Parliament. Therefore, the CAG is not involved in the preparation of the budget.
‘Red Flag’ is the name of a joint exercise between India and which one of the following country?
A)
China
B)
Saudi Arabia
C)
USA
D)
Japan
Exercise 'Red Flag' is a prestigious multilateral air combat exercise hosted by the United States Air Force (USAF) at Nellis Air Force Base, Nevada. India has participated in this exercise to enhance the interoperability of the Indian Air Force (IAF) with other global air forces and to gain experience in complex, large-scale aerial combat scenarios.
Analysis of other options:
- China: India and China do not currently conduct joint military exercises due to geopolitical tensions.
- Saudi Arabia: India conducts exercises with Saudi Arabia, such as 'Al-Moawasat', but not 'Red Flag'.
- Japan: India conducts exercises with Japan, such as 'Dharma Guardian' (Army) and 'JIMEX' (Navy), but 'Red Flag' is specifically a US-led air exercise.
As per the newly launched Mizoram Universal Healthcare Scheme, what is the maximum possible monthly contribution for a government employee (on Level 13 & above pay level)?
A)
400
B)
700
C)
1000
D)
1500
The Mizoram Universal Healthcare Scheme (MUHS) was introduced to provide comprehensive health coverage to the citizens of Mizoram. Under the contribution structure for government employees, the monthly contribution is tiered based on the pay level of the employee. For employees in the highest pay brackets, specifically those at Level 13 and above, the maximum monthly contribution is capped at ₹1,000. This contribution is deducted to fund the healthcare pool that provides benefits to the insured members and their dependents.
‘Carbon Neutrality’ refers to:
A)
Eliminating all energy use
B)
Balancing carbon emission with removal
C)
Only using fossil fuels
D)
No carbon in the environment
Carbon neutrality refers to achieving a state where the net amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) released into the atmosphere is zero. This is achieved by balancing the amount of carbon emitted through human activities (such as burning fossil fuels or deforestation) with an equivalent amount of carbon removed from the atmosphere (through carbon sinks like reforestation, soil carbon sequestration, or technological carbon capture and storage).
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) is incorrect because carbon neutrality does not require the total elimination of energy use, but rather the transition to clean energy and the offsetting of remaining emissions.
- Option (c) is incorrect because using fossil fuels increases carbon emissions, which is the opposite of the goal of carbon neutrality.
- Option (d) is incorrect because carbon is a fundamental element of life and the Earth's natural cycle; the goal is not to remove all carbon from the environment, but to stop the net increase of CO2 in the atmosphere.
The ‘Right to Clean Environment’ is guaranteed in India under:
A)
Directive Principles
B)
Article 21
C)
Article 32
D)
Fundamental Duties
The 'Right to a Clean Environment' is not explicitly mentioned as a separate fundamental right in the text of the Indian Constitution. However, the Supreme Court of India, through various landmark judgments (such as MC Mehta v. Union of India), has expanded the scope of Article 21. Article 21 guarantees the 'Protection of Life and Personal Liberty.' The judiciary has interpreted the 'Right to Life' to mean a life with dignity, which inherently includes the right to a healthy and clean environment, as pollution and environmental degradation directly threaten human life and health.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Directive Principles: While Article 48A directs the State to protect and improve the environment, Directive Principles are non-justiciable (cannot be enforced in a court of law).
- Option (c) Article 32: This is the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (the 'Right to Constitutional Remedies'), not the source of the environmental right itself.
- Option (d) Fundamental Duties: Article 51A(g) imposes a duty on citizens to protect and improve the natural environment, but a 'duty' is different from a 'guaranteed right'.
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty under the Indian Constitution?
A)
To respect the national flag
B)
To vote in elections
C)
To protect the environment
D)
To cherish the country’s heritage
Fundamental Duties are listed in Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the Indian Constitution, added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
1. Option (a) 'To respect the national flag' is a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(a) states to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, including the National Flag and National Anthem).
2. Option (c) 'To protect the environment' is a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(g) states to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife).
3. Option (d) 'To cherish the country’s heritage' is a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(f) states to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture).
Option (b) 'To vote in elections' is a legal and civic right (and a democratic responsibility), but it is NOT listed as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the Constitution. Therefore, it is the correct answer to the question 'Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty'.
Which colour in the rainbow spectrum has the lowest wavelength?
A)
Violet
B)
Blue
C)
Yellow
D)
Red
The visible light spectrum consists of colors arranged by their wavelengths. The sequence from longest to shortest wavelength is: Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, and Violet (often remembered by the acronym VIBGYOR in reverse).
1. Red light has the longest wavelength (approximately 620–750 nm) and the lowest frequency.
2. Violet light has the shortest wavelength (approximately 380–450 nm) and the highest frequency.
Since the question asks for the color with the lowest wavelength, Violet is the correct answer. Blue and Yellow have wavelengths that fall between Red and Violet, making them longer than Violet.
The ‘Blue Revolution’ in India is associated with:
A)
Cotton production
B)
Dairy farming
C)
Fisheries development
D)
Coal mining
The 'Blue Revolution' (Neeli Kranti) refers to the growth and intensification of aquaculture and fisheries production in India. Its primary goal is to increase fish production, improve the livelihoods of fishermen, and enhance the export of seafood.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) Cotton production: Not associated with the Blue Revolution. (The 'Yellow Revolution' is associated with oilseeds).
- Option (b) Dairy farming: This is associated with the 'White Revolution' (Operation Flood).
- Option (d) Coal mining: This is an industrial/mining activity and is not part of the agricultural 'Revolution' series (which typically focus on food and fiber production).
Bell metal is an alloy of which of the following metals?
A)
Copper and tin
B)
Copper and zinc
C)
Tin and zinc
D)
Copper and mercury
Bell metal is a specific type of bronze, which is an alloy consisting primarily of copper (Cu) and tin (Sn). It is specifically formulated with a higher tin content (typically around 20-25%) compared to standard bronze to increase hardness and improve the sonorous (sound-producing) qualities of the metal, making it ideal for casting bells and cymbals.
Analysis of other options:
- Option b (Copper and zinc): This alloy is known as Brass.
- Option c (Tin and zinc): This is not a standard common alloy used in industrial or musical applications.
- Option d (Copper and mercury): This is not a standard alloy; mercury is liquid at room temperature and does not form a structural alloy like bell metal.
With an increase in pressure, the boiling point of water:
A)
Decreases
B)
Increases
C)
Remains constant
D)
Becomes zero
The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure equals the external atmospheric pressure. When the external pressure is increased, the molecules of the liquid require more kinetic energy (and thus a higher temperature) to overcome the external pressure and escape into the gas phase. This relationship is described by the Clausius-Clapeyron equation. A practical example of this is a pressure cooker: by increasing the internal pressure, the boiling point of water rises above 100°C, allowing food to cook faster due to the higher temperature of the boiling water. Conversely, at high altitudes where pressure is lower, the boiling point of water decreases.
If a body is taken from the earth to the moon:
A)
its mass will be different but weight will remain the same
B)
both mass and weight will be different
C)
its mass will remain the same but weight will be different
D)
both mass and weight will remain same
To solve this question, we must distinguish between the physical concepts of mass and weight:
1. **Mass**: Mass is a measure of the amount of matter contained in an object. It is an intrinsic property of the body and does not depend on the location or the gravitational field surrounding it. Therefore, whether a body is on Earth, on the Moon, or in deep space, its mass remains constant.
2. **Weight**: Weight is the force exerted by gravity on an object. It is calculated using the formula W = m × g, where 'm' is the mass and 'g' is the acceleration due to gravity.
3. **Comparison**: The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon (approximately 1.62 m/s²) is much smaller than that on Earth (approximately 9.81 m/s²)—roughly 1/6th of Earth's gravity. Because the value of 'g' changes when moving from Earth to the Moon, the weight (W) of the body will decrease, even though the mass (m) remains the same.
**Analysis of Options:**
- Option (a) is incorrect because mass does not change.
- Option (b) is incorrect because mass remains constant.
- Option (c) is correct because it accurately states that mass is invariant while weight depends on gravity.
- Option (d) is incorrect because weight changes due to the difference in gravitational pull.
Which of the following is used to describe the want satisfying power of a commodity?
A)
Demand
B)
Want
C)
Utility
D)
Consumption
In economics, 'Utility' is defined as the capacity of a commodity or service to satisfy a human want. It is a subjective measure of the satisfaction or happiness a consumer derives from consuming a good.
Here is why the other options are incorrect:
- a. Demand: This refers to the quantity of a good that consumers are willing and able to purchase at various prices during a given period. It is a function of utility, income, and price, but not the power of satisfaction itself.
- b. Want: A want is a desire for a specific good or service to satisfy a need. Utility is the property of the good that satisfies that want.
- d. Consumption: This is the act of using a good or service to satisfy a want. Utility is the quality of the good that makes consumption rewarding.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding ecosystems?
A)
It consists of both biotic and abiotic factors
B)
It is a closed system
C)
It has its own productivity
D)
It s a natural resource system
To identify the incorrect statement, let's analyze each option based on ecological principles:
1. **Option (a): It consists of both biotic and abiotic factors.** This is CORRECT. An ecosystem is defined as a community of living organisms (biotic factors like plants, animals, microbes) interacting with their non-living environment (abiotic factors like sunlight, soil, water, air).
2. **Option (b): It is a closed system.** This is INCORRECT. An ecosystem is an **open system**. It requires a constant input of energy (primarily from the sun) and involves the exchange of matter (nutrients, gases, water) with the surrounding environment. A closed system does not allow the exchange of matter with its surroundings, which would make life unsustainable in a natural ecosystem.
3. **Option (c): It has its own productivity.** This is CORRECT. Ecosystems exhibit primary productivity (the rate at which solar energy is captured by producers/plants) and secondary productivity (the rate at which consumers convert that energy into biomass).
4. **Option (d): It is a natural resource system.** This is CORRECT. Ecosystems provide essential 'ecosystem services' and resources, such as clean water, timber, pollination, and climate regulation, making them fundamental natural resource systems.
Since the question asks for the **incorrect** statement, option (b) is the right choice.
Which of the following is the largest source of renewable energy in India?
A)
Solar energy
B)
Biomass
C)
Wind energy
D)
Hydropower
To determine the largest source of renewable energy in India, it is essential to distinguish between 'installed capacity' (MW) and 'actual energy generation/consumption' (TWh).
1. **Biomass**: In terms of total energy consumption and contribution to the energy mix, biomass (which includes traditional fuels like wood, agricultural residue, and animal waste used primarily in rural households) remains the largest source of renewable energy in India. Even with the rise of modern renewables, the sheer volume of biomass used for heating and cooking makes it the dominant renewable source.
2. **Hydropower**: While historically the largest source of 'commercial' renewable electricity generation, it has been surpassed in installed capacity by solar energy.
3. **Solar Energy**: Solar has the highest growth rate and currently holds the largest 'installed capacity' among non-hydro renewables, but it does not yet exceed the total energy contribution of biomass across all sectors (including non-electric).
4. **Wind Energy**: Wind is a significant contributor but ranks below solar and hydro in terms of total capacity and below biomass in terms of total energy use.
Therefore, when the question asks for the 'largest source' without specifying 'installed electricity capacity,' biomass is the correct answer due to its pervasive use in the residential and industrial sectors.
How is India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) calculated?
A)
Through the Consumer Price Index (CPI)
B)
Using the Net Domestic Product (NDP)
C)
One method based on economic activity and the other on expenditure
D)
By analysing trade balance and fiscal deficit
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period. There are three primary methods used globally and in India to calculate GDP:
1. The Expenditure Approach: This calculates GDP by summing up all spending on final goods and services (Consumption + Investment + Government Spending + (Exports - Imports)).
2. The Income Approach (Economic Activity/Value Added): This calculates GDP by summing the incomes earned by factors of production (Wages + Rent + Interest + Profit) or by calculating the 'Value Added' at each stage of production (Gross Value Added or GVA).
3. The Production Approach: Similar to the value-added method, focusing on the output of various sectors.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of inflation (price changes), not a method to calculate total output (GDP).
- Option (b) is incorrect because Net Domestic Product (NDP) is derived FROM GDP (GDP minus depreciation); it is not the method used to calculate GDP.
- Option (d) is incorrect because trade balance and fiscal deficit are components or indicators of economic health, but they are not the methodologies used to calculate the total GDP.
Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth?
A)
Article 19
B)
Article 21
C)
Article 15
D)
Article 17
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. The question asks for the specific Article of the Indian Constitution that prohibits discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
2. Article 15 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. This is a fundamental right under the 'Right to Equality' (Articles 14-18).
Evaluation of other options:
- Option (a) Article 19: Deals with the protection of six fundamental freedoms (speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession).
- Option (b) Article 21: Deals with the protection of life and personal liberty.
- Option (d) Article 17: Deals with the abolition of untouchability.
Therefore, Article 15 is the correct answer.
The pressure of the earth’s atmosphere at sea level is due to the:
A)
heating of the atmosphere by the sun
B)
fact that most living things constantly breathe air
C)
evaporation of water from the sea’s and oceans
D)
gravitational attraction of the earth for the atmosphere
Atmospheric pressure is defined as the force per unit area exerted against a surface by the weight of the air above that surface. The air in the atmosphere has mass, and the Earth's gravity pulls this mass toward the center of the planet. At sea level, the column of air extending from the surface to the top of the atmosphere is at its maximum height, meaning the total weight of the air pressing down is greatest at this point.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): Heating by the sun causes air to expand and move (creating wind and weather patterns), but it does not create the baseline pressure; in fact, heating generally decreases local density.
- Option (b): Respiration by living things changes the composition of gases (e.g., O2 to CO2) but does not significantly alter the total mass or pressure of the atmosphere.
- Option (c): Evaporation adds water vapor to the air, which affects humidity and local pressure slightly, but it is not the fundamental cause of atmospheric pressure.
Which of the following has the highest value of specific heat?
A)
Alcohol
B)
Methane
C)
Kerosene
D)
Water
Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius (or Kelvin). Among the given options, water has an exceptionally high specific heat capacity due to its strong hydrogen bonding network, which requires significant energy to break or vibrate before the kinetic energy (temperature) of the molecules increases.
Comparing the approximate specific heat values (at room temperature):
1. Water: ~4184 J/(kg·K)
2. Alcohol (Ethanol): ~2440 J/(kg·K)
3. Kerosene: ~2100 J/(kg·K)
4. Methane: ~2220 J/(kg·K)
Since water's value is significantly higher than that of alcohol, methane, and kerosene, it is the correct answer.
The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars is the:
A)
plane mirror
B)
spherical convex mirror
C)
spherical concave mirror
D)
parabolic concave mirror
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Objective: The purpose of a car headlamp is to produce a powerful, parallel beam of light that extends far ahead to illuminate the road.
2. Physics Principle: To achieve a parallel beam, the light source (bulb) must be placed at the focal point of a reflecting surface.
3. Concave vs. Convex: A convex mirror diverges light, which would scatter the beam. A concave mirror converges light; however, if the light source is at the focus, it reflects the light as a parallel beam.
4. Spherical vs. Parabolic: A spherical concave mirror suffers from 'spherical aberration,' meaning rays reflecting from the edges of the mirror do not meet perfectly at the same focal point, resulting in a blurred or diffused beam. A parabolic mirror is specifically designed to eliminate spherical aberration; any ray originating from the focus of a parabola is reflected perfectly parallel to the axis of symmetry.
5. Conclusion: Therefore, a parabolic concave mirror is the ideal choice for headlamps to ensure a concentrated, long-range beam of light.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Plane mirror: Reflects light at the same angle it hits; it cannot collimate light into a beam.
- Spherical convex mirror: Diverges light, which is useful for rear-view mirrors (wide field of view) but useless for headlamps.
- Spherical concave mirror: While it can create a beam, it produces a distorted beam due to spherical aberration compared to the parabolic version.
Which country has recently developed the world’s first deep-sea radar that can detect high-flying aircraft?
A)
USA
B)
Russia
C)
China
D)
Japan
China has recently developed the world's first deep-sea radar system capable of detecting high-flying aircraft. This technology involves placing radar sensors on the ocean floor, which allows for the detection of stealth aircraft and missiles that might evade traditional land-based or ship-borne radar systems due to the curvature of the earth or intentional stealth shaping. By utilizing the deep-sea environment, China aims to enhance its early warning capabilities and maritime surveillance. The other options (USA, Russia, and Japan) possess advanced radar technologies, but the specific development of a 'deep-sea radar' for high-flying aircraft detection is attributed to Chinese research and military advancements.
The Directive Principles of State Policy are:
A)
Justiciable
B)
Non-justiciable
C)
Legally Enforceable
D)
Not a part of the Constitution
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enumerated in Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) of the Constitution of India.
1. **Why 'Non-justiciable' is correct**: According to Article 37 of the Indian Constitution, the DPSP are 'non-justiciable'. This means that if the government fails to implement any of these principles, a citizen cannot approach a court of law (such as the Supreme Court or High Courts) to seek a legal remedy or mandate the government to enforce them.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option a (Justiciable)**: This term refers to rights that can be enforced in a court of law. Fundamental Rights (Part III) are justiciable, but DPSPs are not.
- **Option c (Legally Enforceable)**: This is a synonym for justiciable. Since DPSPs cannot be enforced by legal action, this option is incorrect.
- **Option d (Not a part of the Constitution)**: This is factually wrong. DPSPs are a core part of the Constitution, contained within Part IV.
The ‘Swadeshi Movement’ began in the context of which event?
A)
Partition of Bengal 1905
B)
Non-cooperation Movement
C)
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
The Swadeshi Movement was a direct response to the decision of the British Viceroy, Lord Curzon, to partition Bengal in 1905. The British claimed the partition was for administrative convenience, but Indian nationalists saw it as a 'divide and rule' tactic to weaken the nationalist movement by splitting the population along religious lines (Hindu and Muslim). The movement advocated for the boycott of British-made goods (especially textiles) and the promotion of indigenous (Swadeshi) products to achieve economic self-reliance and protest British imperialism.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Non-cooperation Movement: This was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920, much later than the Swadeshi Movement, primarily in response to the Rowlatt Act and the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
- c. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: This occurred on April 13, 1919, and served as a catalyst for the Non-cooperation Movement, not the Swadeshi Movement.
The ‘Kudankulam’ nuclear power plant is located in:
A)
Andhra Pradesh
B)
Karnataka
C)
Tamil Nadu
D)
Kerala
The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KKNPP) is located in the Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu, India. It is one of the largest nuclear power stations in the country and was developed with technical assistance from Russia.
Analysis of other options:
- Andhra Pradesh: Does not host the Kudankulam plant; however, it has other energy projects.
- Karnataka: Hosts the Kaiga Atomic Power Station.
- Kerala: Does not currently have a commercial nuclear power plant.
In which State is the Keoladeo National Park located?
A)
Madhya Pradesh
B)
Rajasthan
C)
Gujarat
D)
Chhattisgarh
Keoladeo National Park, formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, is located in the state of Rajasthan, India. It is a world-famous man-made wetland and a UNESCO World Heritage site, renowned for its diverse bird population, especially during the winter months when it hosts thousands of migratory birds.
Analysis of other options:
- Madhya Pradesh: Known for parks like Kanha, Bandhavgarh, and Pench.
- Gujarat: Known for Gir National Park (home to Asiatic lions).
- Chhattisgarh: Known for Indravati and Kanger Valley National Parks.
Which of the following institutions formulates the monetary policy in India?
A)
NITI Aayog
B)
RBI
C)
Ministry of Finance
D)
SEBI
The Monetary Policy in India is formulated and implemented by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which is the central bank of the country. The primary objective of the monetary policy is to maintain price stability (controlling inflation) while keeping the objective of growth in mind. This is primarily managed through the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. NITI Aayog: This is a policy think-tank of the Government of India providing strategic and technical advice; it does not control monetary policy.
- c. Ministry of Finance: While it formulates the 'Fiscal Policy' (government spending and taxation), it does not formulate the 'Monetary Policy'.
- d. SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India): This is the regulatory body for the securities and commodity market in India, focusing on investor protection and market regulation, not monetary policy.
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