MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Consider the following:
(i) The State Information Commissioners shall be appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister, the Leader of Opposition and a Cabinet Minister.
(ii) The State Information Commissioners shall be appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister, the Leader of Opposition and the Chief Justice of High Court or his representative having jurisdiction of the Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A)
Only (i)
B)
Only (ii)
C)
Both (i) and (ii)
D)
Neither (i) nor (ii)
Option A is correct: Only (i).
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Which of the following statements is not correct according to the RTI Act, 2005?
(1) The RTI Act, 2005 extends to the whole of India including the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
(2) ‘Competent Authority’ means the Chief Justice of India in the case of the Supreme Court.
(3) Third party means a person other than the citizen making a request for information and includes a public authority.
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
1 & 2 above
Option D is correct: 1 & 2 above.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Exemption from disclosure of ‘Information’ is provided by-
A)
Section 6 of the RTI Act, 2005
B)
Section 7 of the RTI Act, 2005
C)
Section 8 of the RTI Act, 2005
D)
Section 9 of the RTI Act, 2005
Option C is correct: Section 8 of the RTI Act, 2005.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Who appoints the Central Chief Information Commissioner under the RTI Act, 2005?
A)
Prime Minister of India
B)
Chief Justice of India
C)
President of India
D)
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Option C is correct: President of India.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
According to Para 47(9) of the Mizoram Police Manual, 2005, the Drawing and Disbursing Officer of the Superintendent of Police office is the-
A)
Superintendent of Police
B)
Addl. Superintendent of Police
C)
Head Assistant
D)
Deputy Superintendent of Police
According to the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, specifically under the administrative and financial guidelines outlined in Para 47, the Superintendent of Police (SP) is designated as the Drawing and Disbursing Officer (DDO) for their respective office. The DDO is the officer authorized to draw funds from the government treasury and disburse them for the operational and administrative expenses of the office. While the Head Assistant or other subordinates may handle the clerical preparation of bills, the legal and financial accountability for the drawing and disbursement of funds rests with the Superintendent of Police.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
According to Section 25 (1) of Arms Act, 1959, a person who shortens the barrel of a firearm or converts an imitation firearm into a firearm in contravention of section 6 shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than-
A)
1 year
B)
2 years
C)
3 years
D)
4 years
Option C is correct: 3 years.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Power to inspect places of manufacture, bottling plant, bonded warehouse, retail shop, bar etc. and to seize utensils etc. is vested on the Commissioner, or his subordinate officers, or any Excise & Narcotics Officer not below the rank of-
A)
Sub-Inspector
B)
Asst. Sub-Inspector
C)
Asst. Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics
D)
Inspector
Under the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act 2014, the authority to enter, inspect, and seize utensils or materials from places of manufacture, bottling plants, bonded warehouses, retail shops, or bars is granted to the Commissioner, their subordinate officers, or any Excise & Narcotics Officer. According to the statutory provisions regarding the rank of the officer authorized to carry out such inspections and seizures, the minimum rank required for an Excise & Narcotics Officer to exercise these specific powers is that of a Sub-Inspector. Officers below this rank (such as Assistant Sub-Inspectors) do not possess the independent statutory authority to conduct these specific inspections and seizures unless acting under the direct supervision of a superior officer.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
___________ of the Constitution of India empowers the appropriate legislature to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service persons serving the Union or a State-
A)
Article 309
B)
Article 310
C)
Article 311
D)
Artcile 312
Option A is correct: Article 309.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Police officers of and below the rank of ___________ are eligible for the award of Good Service Mark.
A)
Sub-Inspectors
B)
Inspector
C)
Asst. Sub. Inspector
D)
All ranks
In the context of Police Administration and the specific rules governing the Mizoram Police (and similar state police structures based on the Police Manual), 'Good Service Marks' (or Good Service Medals/Rewards) are typically awarded to non-gazetted officers to recognize long-term disciplined service and merit. According to the administrative guidelines for the award of Good Service Marks, officers of and below the rank of Inspector are eligible. This includes Inspectors, Sub-Inspectors, Assistant Sub-Inspectors, and Constabulary ranks. Since the question asks for the upper limit of the rank eligibility ('of and below the rank of'), 'Inspector' is the correct threshold. Officers above the rank of Inspector (such as DySP and above) are generally governed by different reward systems or gazetted officer commendations.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
A police officer is asked in court to testify about a statement made by a witness who has now died. Under which section is this testimony relevant?
A)
Section 32
B)
Section 27
C)
Section 60
D)
Section 114
Option A is correct: Section 32.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
During investigation, a police officer discovers a document written by the accused. It’s unsigned. Can it still be admitted as evidence?
A)
No, unsigned documents are inadmissible
B)
Yes, if the authorship can be proven
C)
Only if the accused admits it in court
D)
Only if witnessed by two people
Option B is correct: Yes, if the authorship can be proven.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Under the Indian Evidence Act, a confession made to a police officer is:
A)
Always admissible
B)
Admissible only if recorded in the presence of a magistrate
C)
Inadmissible under any circumstances
D)
Admissible if made voluntarily and recorded by a DSP
Option C is correct: Inadmissible under any circumstances.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Which of the following statements about leading questions is correct?
A)
Leading questions are always allowed
B)
They can be asked during examination-in-chief
C)
They are allowed during cross-examination
D)
They can never be asked in court
Option C is correct: They are allowed during cross-examination.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
The principle of estoppel under Section 115 prevents:
A)
A witness from retracting a statement
B)
A party from denying a fact that they previously asserted
C)
A police officer from testifying against an accused
D)
The use of circumstantial evidence
Option B is correct: A party from denying a fact that they previously asserted.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
A woman reports sexual assault. The medical report supports her claim. Can the court presume the absence of consent under the Evidence Act?
A)
No, because presumption is not allowed in such cases
B)
Yes, under Section 114A
C)
Only if the woman is below 18 years
D)
Only after the accused is convicted
Option B is correct: Yes, under Section 114A.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Under which Section is an expert opinion (e.g., forensic or handwriting analysis) admissible as evidence?
A)
Section 17
B)
Section 27
C)
Section 45
D)
Section 54
Option C is correct: Section 45.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
In which of the following circumstances is secondary evidence admissible in court?
A)
When the original document is available
B)
When the party seeks convenience
C)
When the original has been destroyed or lost
D)
When the court permits delay in producing original
Option C is correct: When the original has been destroyed or lost.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Under Section 167, if improper evidence has been admitted or excluded, what should the court do?
A)
Automatically order retrial
B)
Ignore the mistake
C)
Reverse the judgment
D)
Examine whether the mistake affected the merits of the case
Option D is correct: Examine whether the mistake affected the merits of the case.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Which of the following is NOT a relevant fact under Sections 5-55 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A)
Motive or preparation for an offence
B)
The character of the accused when irrelevant to the charge
C)
Conduct of parties after the offence
D)
Facts necessary to explain or introduce a fact in issue
Option B is correct: The character of the accused when irrelevant to the charge.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Under the Indian Evidence Act, who is considered a competent witness?
A)
Only adults above 18 years
B)
Only literate persons
C)
Anyone who is capable of understanding and answering questions
D)
Only those who have taken oath
Option C is correct: Anyone who is capable of understanding and answering questions.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
A police officer arrests a person who later confesses in custody, leading to the discovery of stolen property. Which part of the confession is admissible in court under Section 27?
A)
The entire confession
B)
Only the confession made to a magistrate
C)
Only the part that leads to the discovery of the stolen property
D)
None of the confession is admissible
Option C is correct: Only the part that leads to the discovery of the stolen property.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that oral evidence must be direct?
A)
Section 59
B)
Section 60
C)
Section 61
D)
Section 65
Option B is correct: Section 60.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
During cross-examination, a prosecution witness turns hostile. What should the prosecutor do?
A)
Ignore the witness
B)
Request permission to treat the witness as hostile and cross-examine
C)
Immediately close the examination
D)
Ask the police officer to re-investigate
Option B is correct: Request permission to treat the witness as hostile and cross-examine.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
A dying declaration is admissible under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
A)
Section 27
B)
Section 32(1)
C)
Section 39
D)
Section 60
Option B is correct: Section 32(1).
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-II
Who has the power to condone the unauthorized absence under FR 17-A?
A)
Administrative Head
B)
Head of Department
C)
Appointing Authority
D)
Head of Office
Option B is correct: Head of Department.
