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Past Questions

MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Consider the following statements: (i) Arms Act, 1959 does not apply to arms or ammunition on board any sea-going vessel or any aircraft and forming part of the ordinary armament or equipment of such vessel or aircraft. (ii) Arms Act, 1959 does not apply to the acquisition, possession or carrying, the manufacture, repair, conversion, test or proof by a member of the National Cadet Corps raised and maintained under the NCC Act, 1948. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) Only (i)
B) Only (ii)
C) Both (i) and (ii)
D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Option C is correct: Both (i) and (ii).
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

According to Section 15 of the Arms Act, 1959, what is the maximum validity period of a firearm license issued under the Act?

A) One year
B) Three years
C) Five years
D) Ten years
Option C is correct: Five years.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Consider the following: (i) The State Information Commissioners shall be appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister, the Leader of Opposition and a Cabinet Minister. (ii) The State Information Commissioners shall be appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister, the Leader of Opposition and the Chief Justice of High Court or his representative having jurisdiction of the Court. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) Only (i)
B) Only (ii)
C) Both (i) and (ii)
D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Option A is correct: Only (i).
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Which of the following statements is not correct according to the RTI Act, 2005? (1) The RTI Act, 2005 extends to the whole of India including the State of Jammu and Kashmir. (2) ‘Competent Authority’ means the Chief Justice of India in the case of the Supreme Court. (3) Third party means a person other than the citizen making a request for information and includes a public authority.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1 & 2 above
Option D is correct: 1 & 2 above.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Exemption from disclosure of ‘Information’ is provided by-

A) Section 6 of the RTI Act, 2005
B) Section 7 of the RTI Act, 2005
C) Section 8 of the RTI Act, 2005
D) Section 9 of the RTI Act, 2005
Option C is correct: Section 8 of the RTI Act, 2005.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Who appoints the Central Chief Information Commissioner under the RTI Act, 2005?

A) Prime Minister of India
B) Chief Justice of India
C) President of India
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Option C is correct: President of India.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

According to Section 25 (1) of Arms Act, 1959, a person who shortens the barrel of a firearm or converts an imitation firearm into a firearm in contravention of section 6 shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than-

A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 4 years
Option C is correct: 3 years.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Power to inspect places of manufacture, bottling plant, bonded warehouse, retail shop, bar etc. and to seize utensils etc. is vested on the Commissioner, or his subordinate officers, or any Excise & Narcotics Officer not below the rank of-

A) Sub-Inspector
B) Asst. Sub-Inspector
C) Asst. Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics
D) Inspector
Under the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act 2014, the authority to enter, inspect, and seize utensils or materials from places of manufacture, bottling plants, bonded warehouses, retail shops, or bars is granted to the Commissioner, their subordinate officers, or any Excise & Narcotics Officer. According to the statutory provisions regarding the rank of the officer authorized to carry out such inspections and seizures, the minimum rank required for an Excise & Narcotics Officer to exercise these specific powers is that of a Sub-Inspector. Officers below this rank (such as Assistant Sub-Inspectors) do not possess the independent statutory authority to conduct these specific inspections and seizures unless acting under the direct supervision of a superior officer.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Under Section 12 of the ML(PC) Act, 2014, power to close wine shops temporarily is vested upon–

A) Superintendent of Police
B) District Magistrate
C) Asst. Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics
D) Judicial Magistrate
Under Section 12 of the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, the District Magistrate is vested with the power to order the temporary closure of any wine shop or licensed premises. This power is typically exercised in the interest of public order, peace, or to prevent any imminent breach of peace within the district. While the Superintendent of Police (Option a) and the Assistant Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics (Option c) may provide reports or recommendations regarding the necessity of such a closure, the statutory authority to issue the order for temporary closure under this specific section rests with the District Magistrate. A Judicial Magistrate (Option d) handles legal proceedings and trials but does not exercise administrative closure powers under this specific section of the Act.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Which of the following statements about ‘Suspension’ is not correct according to Section 92 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011?

A) A police officer of or above the rank of SP may place a police officer of the rank of Sub-Inspector or below subordinate to him, under suspension.
B) Every order of suspension passed shall be in writing, giving briefly the reasons.
C) An order of suspension so made shall be reviewed every 60 (sixty) days by a Review Committee.
D) Where an officer is placed under suspension, the authority competent to place him under suspension may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, direct that the officer shall continue to be under suspension until the completion of all or any of the proceedings against him.
According to Section 92 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, which deals with the suspension of police officers: 1. Option (a) is correct: A police officer of or above the rank of Superintendent of Police (SP) has the authority to place a subordinate officer of the rank of Sub-Inspector or below under suspension. 2. Option (b) is correct: The Act mandates that every order of suspension must be in writing and must briefly state the reasons for such action. 3. Option (c) is INCORRECT: Under Section 92, the review period for a suspension order is every 90 (ninety) days, not 60 days. Therefore, this statement is the 'not correct' statement requested by the question. 4. Option (d) is correct: The competent authority may, by recording reasons in writing, extend the suspension until the completion of the proceedings against the officer. Since the question asks for the statement that is NOT correct, option (c) is the right answer.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

According to Section 134 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, any person who obstructs the discharge of duties and functions of a police officer, shall, on conviction be liable to-

A) Simple imprisonment not exceeding three months or fine or both.
B) Simple imprisonment not exceeding two months.
C) Simple imprisonment not exceeding two months or fine or both.
D) Simple imprisonment the period of which may be decided based on the gravity of offence committed.
Under Section 134 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, it is a punishable offence to obstruct a police officer in the discharge of their official duties. The specific penalty prescribed for this offence upon conviction is simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to three months, or a fine, or both. - Option (a) is correct as it accurately reflects the statutory penalty of 'three months or fine or both'. - Option (b) and (c) are incorrect because they state 'two months', which is not the period prescribed in the Act. - Option (d) is incorrect because the Act specifies a maximum limit (three months) rather than leaving the period entirely open to the gravity of the offence without a statutory ceiling.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

According to Para 1050(2) of the MPM, 2005 no appeal shall be admitted by the appellate authority if it has not been preferred within ___________ months from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against was issued to the appellant-

A) 2 (two)
B) 5 (five)
C) 4 (four)
D) 1 (one)
According to the Mizoram Police Manual (MPM), 2005, Para 1050 deals with the procedure for appeals against departmental orders. Specifically, Para 1050(2) stipulates the limitation period for filing an appeal. It states that no appeal shall be admitted by the appellate authority if it has not been preferred within 2 (two) months from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against was issued to the appellant. This time limit ensures the timely resolution of disciplinary matters and prevents indefinite delays in the administrative process. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory timeline prescribed in the Manual.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

According to Article 311(1) of the Constitution of India, no person shall be dismissed or removed by-

A) An authority subordinate to the Appointing Authority
B) The President of India
C) The Governor of the State
D) The Parliament
Option A is correct: An authority subordinate to the Appointing Authority.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Section 39 of the Arms Act, 1959 requires previous sanction of the ___________ before prosecuting a public servant.

A) High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) District Magistrate
D) District Court
Option C is correct: District Magistrate.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

___________ of the Constitution of India empowers the appropriate legislature to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service persons serving the Union or a State-

A) Article 309
B) Article 310
C) Article 311
D) Artcile 312
Option A is correct: Article 309.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Which Article provides for the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the Union and the States?

A) Article 311
B) Article 312
C) Article 315
D) Article 313
Option C is correct: Article 315.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

In the context of the Mizoram Police Manual, 2005, the Malkhana Register is also known as the-

A) Received Register
B) Crime Register
C) Property Register
D) FIR Register
In the context of police administration and the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, the 'Malkhana' is the designated storehouse where evidence, seized articles, and properties recovered during investigations are kept in safe custody. The register used to maintain a detailed record of these items—including the date of seizure, description of the property, case number, and the date of disposal or return—is formally known as the Property Register. Why other options are incorrect: - a. Received Register: This is a general term for registers that track incoming correspondence or documents. - b. Crime Register: This refers to registers that track the statistics and details of reported crimes (e.g., Crime Register No. 1). - d. FIR Register: This is the First Information Report register where the initial complaints of cognizable offenses are recorded.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Under the RTI Act 2005, no fees shall be charged from persons who belong to?

A) Scheduled Tribe.
B) Below Poverty Line.
C) Other Backward Class.
D) Scheduled Caste.
Option B is correct: Below Poverty Line..
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

The competent authority to issue license for distilleries, breweries, wineries, bottling plants and bonded warehouses under the ML(PC) Act, 2014 is-

A) Chief Secretary
B) Excise Minister
C) The Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics
D) Home Minister
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014 [ML(PC) Act], the administration and enforcement of liquor laws are vested in the Excise Department. Specifically, for the issuance of licenses related to the manufacture and storage of liquor—such as distilleries, breweries, wineries, bottling plants, and bonded warehouses—the Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics is designated as the competent authority. - Option (a) Chief Secretary: The Chief Secretary is the administrative head of the state government but does not hold the statutory power to issue specific excise licenses. - Option (b) Excise Minister: While the Minister provides political leadership and policy direction, the statutory power to grant licenses is delegated to the administrative head of the department (the Commissioner). - Option (d) Home Minister: The Home Department oversees general law and order, but the specific regulatory control over liquor licenses falls under the Excise & Narcotics Department.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

The Mizoram Police Act, 2011 - (i) Extends to the whole of the state of Mizoram (ii) Shall come into force on 1st September, 2013 Which of the above statements is/are correct:

A) Only (i) is correct
B) Only (ii) is correct
C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
D) Neither (i) nor (ii) are correct
Step-by-step analysis of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011: 1. Analysis of Statement (i): The Mizoram Police Act, 2011, is the primary legislation governing the police force within the state. According to the 'Short title, extent and commencement' section of the Act, it explicitly states that it extends to the whole of the State of Mizoram. Therefore, statement (i) is correct. 2. Analysis of Statement (ii): While the Act was passed/enacted in 2011, the official notification for its commencement (coming into force) was set for 1st September 2013. This is a standard legal procedure where an Act is passed by the legislature but becomes operational on a specific date notified by the government. Therefore, statement (ii) is correct. Conclusion: Since both statements (i) and (ii) are factually accurate according to the legal text of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the correct option is (c).
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

According to Para 236 the Mizoram Police Manual, 2005, the firearms, bayonets, pouches, stores and all other weapons at the Police Station shall be under the charge of the-

A) Armourer
B) Sub-Divisional Police Officer
C) Sherista
D) Officer in-charge of the Police Station
According to Para 236 of the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, the responsibility for the custody and management of weaponry at the station level is centralized under the administrative head of that unit. Specifically, all firearms, bayonets, pouches, stores, and other weapons kept at the Police Station are under the direct charge of the Officer-in-Charge (OC) of the Police Station. While an Armourer may handle the technical maintenance and a Sherista may handle clerical records, the legal and administrative accountability for the stores rests with the Officer-in-Charge. The Sub-Divisional Police Officer (SDPO) provides supervisory oversight but is not the primary custodian of the station's armory.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

What kind of entries are to be made in the Process Register as per the Mizoram Police Manual?

A) Records of all FIRs received at the Police Station.
B) All cases of unnatural deaths registered at the Police Station
C) Information about warrants and summons issued and served.
D) Daily Roll Call and Inspections at the Police Station
In the context of the Mizoram Police Manual and general police administration, the 'Process Register' is specifically designed to track 'legal processes'—which refers to the formal documents issued by a court of law. These include summonses, warrants of arrest, warrants of attachment, and proclamations. The register ensures a record of when the process was received from the court, who was assigned to execute it, and whether it was successfully served or returned unserved. Why other options are incorrect: - Option (a) refers to the First Information Report (FIR) Register or the General Diary. - Option (b) refers to the Inquest Register or the Case Diary for unnatural deaths. - Option (d) refers to the Daily Diary or the Station Order Book/Roll Call register.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Under Section 32 (1) of Arms Act, 1959, power to confiscate is provided to-

A) District Magistrate
B) District Superintendent of Police
C) Home Secretary
D) The convicting Court
Option D is correct: The convicting Court.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Under Section 129 (1) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the District SP or any Police Officer not below the rank of ___________, authorized in this behalf by the District SP may stop any assembly or procession which violates the conditions set under Section 128 and order such assembly to disperse.

A) Inspector
B) Sub-Inspector
C) Asst. Sub. Inspector
D) Deputy Superintendent of Police
According to Section 129 (1) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the authority to stop an assembly or procession that violates the conditions set under Section 128 is vested in the District Superintendent of Police (SP) or any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector who has been authorized by the District SP for this purpose. - Option (a) Inspector: While an Inspector is above a Sub-Inspector, the legal threshold for authorization under this specific section is set at the rank of Sub-Inspector. - Option (c) Asst. Sub. Inspector: This rank is below the statutory requirement of a Sub-Inspector. - Option (d) Deputy Superintendent of Police: While a DSP has the authority, the Act specifies the minimum rank required for authorization by the SP, which is Sub-Inspector.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV

Police officers of and below the rank of ___________ are eligible for the award of Good Service Mark.

A) Sub-Inspectors
B) Inspector
C) Asst. Sub. Inspector
D) All ranks
In the context of Police Administration and the specific rules governing the Mizoram Police (and similar state police structures based on the Police Manual), 'Good Service Marks' (or Good Service Medals/Rewards) are typically awarded to non-gazetted officers to recognize long-term disciplined service and merit. According to the administrative guidelines for the award of Good Service Marks, officers of and below the rank of Inspector are eligible. This includes Inspectors, Sub-Inspectors, Assistant Sub-Inspectors, and Constabulary ranks. Since the question asks for the upper limit of the rank eligibility ('of and below the rank of'), 'Inspector' is the correct threshold. Officers above the rank of Inspector (such as DySP and above) are generally governed by different reward systems or gazetted officer commendations.