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Past Questions
What does “right to information” mean under Section 2(j) of the RTI Act, 2005?
A)
The right to access personal information of any individual
B)
The right to obtain information from private organizations
C)
The right to information accessible under the Act, held by or under the control of any public authority, including the rights to inspect work, documents, records; take notes, extracts or certified copies; take certified samples of material; and obtain information in electronic form.
D)
The right to question public authorities in a court of law
Option C is correct: The right to information accessible under the Act, held by or under the control of any public authority, including the rights to inspect work, documents, records; take notes, extracts or certified copies; take certified samples of material; and obtain information in electronic form..
What does “information” mean under Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, 2005?
A)
Only official records maintained in physical form.
B)
Any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
C)
Only information pertaining to government policies.
D)
Information available on government websites only.
Option B is correct: Any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force..
Under the RTI Act, 2005, within how many days must a first appeal be filed after receiving a response or upon the expiry of the prescribed time limit for receiving a response?
A)
21 days
B)
7 days
C)
14 days
D)
30 days
Option D is correct: 30 days.
Which section of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, outlines the role, functions, and duties of the police?
A)
Section 30
B)
Section 39
C)
Section 40
D)
Section 59
Under the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, Section 39 specifically delineates the 'Role, functions and duties of the police'. This section serves as the foundational mandate for police officers in the state, outlining their responsibility to maintain public order, prevent and detect crime, protect life and property, and ensure the overall security of the state.
- Section 30 generally deals with different administrative or procedural aspects not related to the core functional mandate.
- Section 40 typically follows the duties section and often deals with specific powers or limitations related to the execution of those duties.
- Section 59 pertains to other regulatory or penal provisions within the Act rather than the definition of the police's primary role.
Which of the following statements about the All-India Services is correct?
A)
The All-India Services may be created by an Act of Parliament.
B)
The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All-India Services.
C)
The rules of recruitment to the All-India Services are determined by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
D)
The conditions of service to the All-India Services may be altered by the UPSC
Option A is correct: The All-India Services may be created by an Act of Parliament..
Which of the following services is not considered an All -India Service under Article 312?
A)
Indian Administrative Service (IAS)
B)
Indian Police Service (IPS)
C)
Indian Forest Service (IFS)
D)
Indian Revenue Service (IRS)
Option D is correct: Indian Revenue Service (IRS).
Under Section 138 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, which of the following does NOT constitute dereliction of duty by a police officer?
A)
Refusing to register an FIR without lawful justification.
B)
Willfully absenting oneself from duty.
C)
Participating in an approved training program.
D)
Found in a state of intoxication, while on duty.
Section 138 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, deals with the 'Dereliction of Duty' by police officers. Dereliction of duty refers to the failure to perform one's legal or professional obligations.
1. Option (a) 'Refusing to register an FIR without lawful justification' is a serious failure of statutory duty and constitutes dereliction.
2. Option (b) 'Willfully absenting oneself from duty' is a direct violation of discipline and duty, falling under dereliction.
3. Option (d) 'Found in a state of intoxication, while on duty' is a gross misconduct and a failure to maintain the professional standards required for duty, thus constituting dereliction.
4. Option (c) 'Participating in an approved training program' is a lawful order and a professional requirement for capacity building. Since the officer is performing a duty assigned by the department, it cannot be classified as a failure or neglect of duty (dereliction).
What is a “Bonded Warehouse” according to the ML(PC) Act,2014?
A)
A warehouse for storing perishable goods
B)
A warehouse where liquor is stored after paying duty
C)
A warehouse for storing confiscated liquor
D)
A licensed warehouse for storing liquor on which duty has not been paid.
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, a 'Bonded Warehouse' is a specific legal designation for a facility licensed by the government. The defining characteristic of a bonded warehouse is that it allows for the storage of liquor (or other excisable goods) without the immediate payment of excise duty. The duty is 'bonded' or deferred until the goods are removed from the warehouse for consumption or sale.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the nature of the goods (perishable) is irrelevant to the legal definition of a bonded warehouse.
- Option (b) is incorrect because if duty has already been paid, the warehouse is no longer 'bonded' in the legal/fiscal sense; it is simply a storage facility.
- Option (c) is incorrect because confiscated liquor is typically stored in government godowns or evidence rooms (Malkhana), not in a 'Bonded Warehouse' which is a commercial/regulatory licensing term.
Which of the following statements about the appointment and term of office of the Director General of Police (DGP)is/are correct? (1) The Director General of Police so appointed, unless superannuating earlier, shall have a minimum tenure of three years (2) The post of Director General of Police shall be the senior-most position in the hierarchy of the Police Service in the state.
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 2
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 nor 2
Step-by-step analysis based on the Mizoram Police Act 2011 and established police administration guidelines in India:
1. Analysis of Statement (1): According to the guidelines for the appointment of the Director General of Police (DGP) and the administrative framework adopted under the Mizoram Police Act 2011 (aligned with Supreme Court directives in the 'Prakash Singh' case), the DGP is generally provided a minimum tenure of two to three years to ensure stability in police administration and to prevent arbitrary transfers. Specifically, in the context of the state's police regulations, the provision for a minimum tenure (unless superannuated) is a standard requirement to maintain professional autonomy.
2. Analysis of Statement (2): By definition and legal structure, the Director General of Police (DGP) is the highest-ranking police officer in a state. The DGP serves as the head of the state police force and is the senior-most position in the hierarchy of the Police Service within that state.
Since both statements are factually and legally correct regarding the office of the DGP in Mizoram, the correct option is 'Both 1 and 2'.
Which of the following statements about the Execution of Warrants is NOT correct according to the Mizoram Police Manual,2005?
A)
Execution of a warrant of arrest shall never be delayed.
B)
The Officer-in-Charge may endorse the warrant to some other Police Officer including a Constable.
C)
The person arrested shall be forwarded without unnecessary delay to the court before which he is required by law to be produced.
D)
A warrant after execution may not be returned to the issuing court.
According to the Mizoram Police Manual 2005 and the general principles of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) which govern the execution of warrants:
1. Option (a) is correct: Warrants of arrest must be executed promptly and without delay to ensure the administration of justice.
2. Option (b) is correct: The Officer-in-Charge (OC) of a police station has the authority to endorse a warrant to another police officer, including a Constable, for its execution.
3. Option (c) is correct: Legal mandates require that any person arrested under a warrant be produced before the issuing court or the nearest Magistrate without unnecessary delay.
4. Option (d) is NOT correct: This statement is legally false. Once a warrant has been executed (or if it has not been executed despite due diligence), it MUST be returned to the issuing court with a report detailing the execution or the reasons for non-execution. The return of the warrant is a mandatory procedural requirement to inform the court of the status of the order.
According to para 1034 the Mizoram Police Manual,2005 ‘Confinement to Quarterguard’ is applicable to which ranks within the police force?
A)
All ranks within the police force
B)
Only Constables
C)
Constables to Head Constables/Havildars
D)
Assistant Sub-Inspectors and above
According to the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, specifically under the sections dealing with disciplinary measures and punishments (Para 1034), 'Confinement to Quarterguard' is a form of departmental punishment. In the hierarchy of the police force, such restrictive confinement is typically reserved for the non-gazetted, lower-subordinate ranks. Specifically, this punishment is applicable to personnel ranging from Constables up to Head Constables/Havildars. Officers of the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector (ASI) and above are subject to different disciplinary procedures and forms of punishment as per the service rules and the Police Act, making option 'c' the correct legal application of this specific manual provision.
Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a State?
A)
Article 310
B)
Article 311
C)
Article 312
D)
Article 309
Option D is correct: Article 309.
Under Section 25 of the Arms Act, 1959, what is the punishment for unauthorized possession of prohibited arms or ammunition?
A)
Up to 5 years of imprisonment
B)
Minimum 7 years, extendable to life imprisonment
C)
Fine only
D)
6 months of imprisonment or fine
Option B is correct: Minimum 7 years, extendable to life imprisonment.
Under Section 3 of the Arms Act, 1959, which of the following statements is correct regarding the acquisition and possession of firearms?
A)
Any adult citizen of India can freely possess a firearm without a licence
B)
A person must obtain a valid licence to acquire, possess, or carry any firearm orammunition
C)
Firearms may be acquired only for sporting purposes, and no licence is required
D)
Only police officers are permitted to possess firearms under any circumstance
Option B is correct: A person must obtain a valid licence to acquire, possess, or carry any firearm orammunition.
Under Section 129 (1) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the District SP or any Police Officer not below the rank of ___________, authorized in this behalf by the District SP may stop any assembly or procession which violates the conditions set under Section 128 and order such assembly to disperse.
A)
Inspector
B)
Sub-Inspector
C)
Asst. Sub. Inspector
D)
Deputy Superintendent of Police
According to Section 129 (1) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the authority to stop an assembly or procession that violates the conditions set under Section 128 is vested in the District Superintendent of Police (SP) or any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector who has been authorized by the District SP for this purpose.
- Option (a) Inspector: While an Inspector is above a Sub-Inspector, the legal threshold for authorization under this specific section is set at the rank of Sub-Inspector.
- Option (c) Asst. Sub. Inspector: This rank is below the statutory requirement of a Sub-Inspector.
- Option (d) Deputy Superintendent of Police: While a DSP has the authority, the Act specifies the minimum rank required for authorization by the SP, which is Sub-Inspector.
According to Para 236 the Mizoram Police Manual, 2005, the firearms, bayonets, pouches, stores and all other weapons at the Police Station shall be under the charge of the-
A)
Armourer
B)
Sub-Divisional Police Officer
C)
Sherista
D)
Officer in-charge of the Police Station
According to Para 236 of the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, the responsibility for the custody and management of weaponry at the station level is centralized under the administrative head of that unit. Specifically, all firearms, bayonets, pouches, stores, and other weapons kept at the Police Station are under the direct charge of the Officer-in-Charge (OC) of the Police Station. While an Armourer may handle the technical maintenance and a Sherista may handle clerical records, the legal and administrative accountability for the stores rests with the Officer-in-Charge. The Sub-Divisional Police Officer (SDPO) provides supervisory oversight but is not the primary custodian of the station's armory.
Para 50 (8) of Mizoram Police Manual, 2005 provides that Progress Report in Special Report cases should be submitted by the –
A)
Officer in-charge of the Police Station
B)
Sub-Divisional Police Officer
C)
Superintendent of Police
D)
Addl. Superintendent of Police
According to the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, specifically under the guidelines for Special Reports (SR), the reporting hierarchy is strictly defined to ensure administrative oversight. Para 50 deals with the submission and monitoring of Special Reports. Sub-para (8) explicitly mandates that the Progress Report in Special Report cases must be submitted by the Superintendent of Police (SP) to the higher authorities (typically the Director General of Police or the Home Department). While the Officer-in-charge (OC) of the Police Station initiates the report and the SDPO supervises it, the formal responsibility for submitting the progress report of an SR case lies with the District Head of Police, which is the Superintendent of Police.
The Superintendent of Police shall be competent to grant cash reward of the amount up to-
A)
Rs. 2000/-
B)
Rs. 3000/-
C)
Rs. 1000/-
D)
Rs. 4000/-
In the context of Police Administration and the delegated financial powers within the Mizoram Police establishment, the Superintendent of Police (SP) is vested with the authority to grant small cash rewards for meritorious work or specific achievements in crime detection/prevention. According to the prevailing administrative guidelines and the Police Manual/Financial Rules applicable to the state police force, the SP is competent to sanction cash rewards up to a limit of Rs. 1000/-. Amounts exceeding this limit typically require the approval of the Director General of Police (DGP) or the State Government. Therefore, option (c) is the correct administrative limit for the SP's competency in this specific category of reward.
Police officers of and below the rank of ___________ are eligible for the award of Good Service Mark.
A)
Sub-Inspectors
B)
Inspector
C)
Asst. Sub. Inspector
D)
All ranks
In the context of Police Administration and the specific rules governing the Mizoram Police (and similar state police structures based on the Police Manual), 'Good Service Marks' (or Good Service Medals/Rewards) are typically awarded to non-gazetted officers to recognize long-term disciplined service and merit. According to the administrative guidelines for the award of Good Service Marks, officers of and below the rank of Inspector are eligible. This includes Inspectors, Sub-Inspectors, Assistant Sub-Inspectors, and Constabulary ranks. Since the question asks for the upper limit of the rank eligibility ('of and below the rank of'), 'Inspector' is the correct threshold. Officers above the rank of Inspector (such as DySP and above) are generally governed by different reward systems or gazetted officer commendations.
The competent authority to issue license for distilleries, breweries, wineries, bottling plants and bonded warehouses under the ML(PC) Act, 2014 is-
A)
Chief Secretary
B)
Excise Minister
C)
The Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics
D)
Home Minister
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014 [ML(PC) Act], the administration and enforcement of liquor laws are vested in the Excise Department. Specifically, for the issuance of licenses related to the manufacture and storage of liquor—such as distilleries, breweries, wineries, bottling plants, and bonded warehouses—the Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics is designated as the competent authority.
- Option (a) Chief Secretary: The Chief Secretary is the administrative head of the state government but does not hold the statutory power to issue specific excise licenses.
- Option (b) Excise Minister: While the Minister provides political leadership and policy direction, the statutory power to grant licenses is delegated to the administrative head of the department (the Commissioner).
- Option (d) Home Minister: The Home Department oversees general law and order, but the specific regulatory control over liquor licenses falls under the Excise & Narcotics Department.
The tenure of office of persons serving the Union or a State is-
A)
Till they attain 62 years of age.
B)
During the pleasure of the President or the Governor.
C)
They hold office permanently unless removed by any Court.
D)
Till the contract between the Union or the state is effective.
Option B is correct: During the pleasure of the President or the Governor..
All-India Services can be created under Article 312 of the Constitution of India by:
A)
Resolution of the Lok Sabha
B)
Resolution of the Rajya Sabha
C)
Joint sitting of both Houses
D)
Constitutional amendment
Option B is correct: Resolution of the Rajya Sabha.
According to Para 47(9) of the Mizoram Police Manual, 2005, the Drawing and Disbursing Officer of the Superintendent of Police office is the-
A)
Superintendent of Police
B)
Addl. Superintendent of Police
C)
Head Assistant
D)
Deputy Superintendent of Police
According to the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, specifically under the administrative and financial guidelines outlined in Para 47, the Superintendent of Police (SP) is designated as the Drawing and Disbursing Officer (DDO) for their respective office. The DDO is the officer authorized to draw funds from the government treasury and disburse them for the operational and administrative expenses of the office. While the Head Assistant or other subordinates may handle the clerical preparation of bills, the legal and financial accountability for the drawing and disbursement of funds rests with the Superintendent of Police.
According to Para 1050(2) of the MPM, 2005 no appeal shall be admitted by the appellate authority if it has not been preferred within ___________ months from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against was issued to the appellant-
A)
2 (two)
B)
5 (five)
C)
4 (four)
D)
1 (one)
According to the Mizoram Police Manual (MPM), 2005, Para 1050 deals with the procedure for appeals against departmental orders. Specifically, Para 1050(2) stipulates the limitation period for filing an appeal. It states that no appeal shall be admitted by the appellate authority if it has not been preferred within 2 (two) months from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against was issued to the appellant. This time limit ensures the timely resolution of disciplinary matters and prevents indefinite delays in the administrative process. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory timeline prescribed in the Manual.
According to Sec 40 of the ML(PC) Act, 2014 all the offences under the Act are-
A)
Bailable
B)
Cognizable
C)
Non-Cognizable
D)
Non-transferable
Under Section 40 of the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act, 2014, it is explicitly stated that all offences punishable under this Act shall be cognizable.
1. Cognizable offence: This means that a police officer has the authority to arrest a person without a warrant and to start an investigation without the prior permission of a court. Given the nature of liquor prohibition in Mizoram, the Act empowers law enforcement to act swiftly to curb the illegal trade and consumption of alcohol.
2. Bailable/Non-Bailable: While some offences may be bailable, the specific provision of Section 40 focuses on the 'cognizable' nature of the offences to ensure effective enforcement.
3. Non-Cognizable: This is the opposite of cognizable; if the offences were non-cognizable, police would require a warrant for arrest, which would hinder the enforcement of the Prohibition Act.
4. Non-transferable: This term generally refers to the transfer of cases or jurisdiction and is not the legal classification of the nature of the offence provided in Section 40.