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Past Questions — 2025
What is a “Bonded Warehouse” according to the ML(PC) Act,2014?
A)
A warehouse for storing perishable goods
B)
A warehouse where liquor is stored after paying duty
C)
A warehouse for storing confiscated liquor
D)
A licensed warehouse for storing liquor on which duty has not been paid.
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, a 'Bonded Warehouse' is a specific legal designation for a facility licensed by the government. The defining characteristic of a bonded warehouse is that it allows for the storage of liquor (or other excisable goods) without the immediate payment of excise duty. The duty is 'bonded' or deferred until the goods are removed from the warehouse for consumption or sale.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the nature of the goods (perishable) is irrelevant to the legal definition of a bonded warehouse.
- Option (b) is incorrect because if duty has already been paid, the warehouse is no longer 'bonded' in the legal/fiscal sense; it is simply a storage facility.
- Option (c) is incorrect because confiscated liquor is typically stored in government godowns or evidence rooms (Malkhana), not in a 'Bonded Warehouse' which is a commercial/regulatory licensing term.
Which of the following statements about the Power of granting Rewards:is/are correct? (1) The Superintendent of Police (SP) shall be competent to grant a reward upto Rs. 1,000/ (2) The Deputy Inspector General of Police(DIG) shall be competent to grant a reward upto Rs. 2,000/
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 2
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 nor 2
According to the Mizoram Police Manual regarding the administration of rewards for distinguished service or bravery, specific financial powers are delegated to various ranks of police officers to ensure timely recognition of merit.
1. Statement (1) is correct: The Superintendent of Police (SP) is vested with the authority to grant rewards up to a limit of Rs. 1,000/-.
2. Statement (2) is correct: The Deputy Inspector General of Police (DIG) is vested with the authority to grant rewards up to a limit of Rs. 2,000/-.
Since both statements accurately reflect the delegated financial powers for granting rewards as per the manual, the correct option is 'Both 1 and 2'.
Under Section 3 of the Arms Act, 1959, which of the following statements is correct regarding the acquisition and possession of firearms?
A)
Any adult citizen of India can freely possess a firearm without a licence
B)
A person must obtain a valid licence to acquire, possess, or carry any firearm orammunition
C)
Firearms may be acquired only for sporting purposes, and no licence is required
D)
Only police officers are permitted to possess firearms under any circumstance
Option B is correct: A person must obtain a valid licence to acquire, possess, or carry any firearm orammunition.
According to para 1034 the Mizoram Police Manual,2005 ‘Confinement to Quarterguard’ is applicable to which ranks within the police force?
A)
All ranks within the police force
B)
Only Constables
C)
Constables to Head Constables/Havildars
D)
Assistant Sub-Inspectors and above
According to the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, specifically under the sections dealing with disciplinary measures and punishments (Para 1034), 'Confinement to Quarterguard' is a form of departmental punishment. In the hierarchy of the police force, such restrictive confinement is typically reserved for the non-gazetted, lower-subordinate ranks. Specifically, this punishment is applicable to personnel ranging from Constables up to Head Constables/Havildars. Officers of the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector (ASI) and above are subject to different disciplinary procedures and forms of punishment as per the service rules and the Police Act, making option 'c' the correct legal application of this specific manual provision.
What is the meaning of “ Public place” under the ML(PC) Act,2014?
A)
Any private residence where liquor is consumed
B)
Any public conveyance, hotel, shop, or any other place intended for use by, or accessible to the public
C)
Only government-owned buildings
D)
Any place where liquor is sold
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, the term 'Public Place' is defined broadly to ensure the effectiveness of prohibition laws.
1. Analysis of Option (b): This option aligns with the legal definition of a public place, which encompasses not only government property but any area—including commercial establishments like hotels and shops, or transport vehicles (public conveyances)—that is either intended for public use or is accessible to the general public.
2. Why Option (a) is incorrect: A private residence is generally excluded from the definition of a 'public place' unless it is being used for commercial purposes or is open to the public.
3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: The definition is not limited to government-owned buildings; it includes private properties that serve a public function or are accessible to the public.
4. Why Option (d) is incorrect: While a place where liquor is sold is likely a public place, the definition of 'public place' is a general spatial definition and not limited solely to the act of selling liquor.
In the context of the Mizoram Police Manual,2005 the Khatian Register is also known as the:
A)
General Diary
B)
Crime Register
C)
Property Register
D)
Duty Roster
In the administrative and operational framework of the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, the 'Khatian Register' refers to the record used for the accounting and tracking of properties, exhibits, and seized items. In police terminology, a 'Khatian' (a term derived from land records but adapted for inventory in certain administrative contexts) serves as the Property Register to ensure that all case properties are documented, stored, and produced in court when required.
- Option (a) General Diary is the daily record of all events occurring at a police station.
- Option (b) Crime Register is used for recording the details of offenses and the progress of investigations.
- Option (d) Duty Roster is a schedule for the deployment of personnel.
Consider the following statements: (1) Every offence under the Arms Act, shall be cognizable offence. (2) No prosecution shall be instituted against any person in respect of any offence under section 3 of the Arms Act without the previous sanction of the district magistrate. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 2
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
None of the above
Option C is correct: Both 1 and 2.
Under Section 25 of the Arms Act, 1959, what is the punishment for unauthorized possession of prohibited arms or ammunition?
A)
Up to 5 years of imprisonment
B)
Minimum 7 years, extendable to life imprisonment
C)
Fine only
D)
6 months of imprisonment or fine
Option B is correct: Minimum 7 years, extendable to life imprisonment.
Which section of the Arms Act, 1959 empowers any magistrate, police officer, or other authorized officer to stop and search any vessel, vehicle, or other means of conveyance for arms or ammunition?
A)
Section 19
B)
Section 20
C)
Section 23
D)
Section 24
Option C is correct: Section 23.
Under Section 20 of the RTI Act, 2005, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A)
The Information Commission can impose a penalty of 350 per day for delays in providing information, up to a maximum of 35,000.
B)
Before imposing any penalty, the Public Information Officer (PIO) must be given a reasonable opportunity to be heard.
C)
The Information Commission can impose a penalty of 250 per day for delays in providing information, up to a maximum of 25,000.
D)
The Information Commission may recommend disciplinary action against the PIO under applicable service rules.
Option C is correct: The Information Commission can impose a penalty of 250 per day for delays in providing information, up to a maximum of 25,000..
What does the term “Subordinate Rank” include under Section 2 (1)(q) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011?
A)
All ranks below the rank of Constable
B)
All ranks below the rank of Inspector of Police
C)
All ranks below the rank of Assistant Inspector of Police (ASI)
D)
All ranks below the rank of Assistant or Deputy Superintendent of Police
Under Section 2 (1)(q) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the term 'Subordinate Rank' is specifically defined to categorize the hierarchy of the police force. In the structure of the Mizoram Police, officers of the rank of Assistant Superintendent of Police (ASP) and Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP) and above are considered Gazetted/Superior officers. Therefore, all ranks falling below these levels—which include Inspectors, Sub-Inspectors, Assistant Sub-Inspectors, Head Constables, and Constables—are collectively classified as 'Subordinate Rank'. Options a, b, and c are incorrect because they exclude higher subordinate ranks like the Inspector or Sub-Inspector from the definition.
What does “Wine” refer to in the context of the ML(PC) Act,2014?
A)
Fermented rice
B)
Fermented juice of apple, ginger, grape, guava, passion fruit, peach, pear or pineapple, or any other fruits
C)
Fermented millet, or other grain-based beverage
D)
Liquor containing alcohol obtained by distillation
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, specific definitions are provided to distinguish between different types of alcoholic beverages for the purpose of regulation and prohibition.
1. Option (b) is correct because the Act defines 'Wine' specifically as the fermented juice of various fruits (including apple, ginger, grape, guava, passion fruit, peach, pear, pineapple, or any other fruits).
2. Option (a) and (c) typically refer to 'Country Liquor' or traditional fermented beverages (like Zu) which are categorized differently under the Act's definitions of indigenous or grain-based liquors.
3. Option (d) refers to 'Spirit' or 'Distilled Liquor', which is alcohol obtained through the process of distillation rather than simple fermentation.
According to the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, what does the term “ Core functions” means?
A)
Community outreach programs and public relations activities.
B)
Duties related to sovereign functions of the State including arrests, search, seizure, crime investigation, crowd control, etc
C)
Training and development programs for police personnel
D)
Administrative tasks such as record-keeping and internal audits.
Under the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, 'Core Functions' refer to the essential, sovereign powers exercised by the police force to maintain law and order and ensure public safety. These are the primary duties that distinguish the police from other administrative or social services.
1. Why Option (b) is correct: Arrests, searches, seizures, criminal investigations, and crowd control are the fundamental 'sovereign functions' of the state. These actions involve the legal exercise of authority to enforce the law, which is the definition of core policing.
2. Why Option (a) is incorrect: Community outreach and public relations are 'supportive' or 'preventative' functions, not the core sovereign powers of the state.
3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: Training and development are internal human resource management functions necessary for efficiency, but they are not the 'core functions' of police operations in the field.
4. Why Option (d) is incorrect: Record-keeping and audits are administrative/clerical tasks that support the core functions but do not constitute the sovereign exercise of police power.
Who is responsible for keeping the keys of the Malkhana in a police station according to the Mizoram Police Manual,2025?
A)
Officer-in-Charge of the Police Station
B)
Head Constable
C)
Armourer
D)
Sub-Divisional Police Officer (SDPO)
According to the standard protocols outlined in the Mizoram Police Manual regarding the management of the Malkhana (the storehouse for case properties and seized items), the primary responsibility for the custody and security of the Malkhana rests with the Officer-in-Charge (OC) of the Police Station. While the actual physical handling or recording may be delegated to a subordinate (such as a Head Constable acting as the Malkhana Moharrir), the ultimate responsibility for the keys and the integrity of the store remains with the Officer-in-Charge to ensure accountability and prevent tampering with evidence. Option (b) is incorrect as the Head Constable manages the records but does not hold ultimate responsibility; Option (c) is incorrect as the Armourer is responsible for weapons, not general case property; Option (d) is incorrect as the SDPO provides supervisory oversight rather than daily custodial management of a specific station's Malkhana.
What does “right to information” mean under Section 2(j) of the RTI Act, 2005?
A)
The right to access personal information of any individual
B)
The right to obtain information from private organizations
C)
The right to information accessible under the Act, held by or under the control of any public authority, including the rights to inspect work, documents, records; take notes, extracts or certified copies; take certified samples of material; and obtain information in electronic form.
D)
The right to question public authorities in a court of law
Option C is correct: The right to information accessible under the Act, held by or under the control of any public authority, including the rights to inspect work, documents, records; take notes, extracts or certified copies; take certified samples of material; and obtain information in electronic form..
Under the RTI Act, 2005, within how many days must a first appeal be filed after receiving a response or upon the expiry of the prescribed time limit for receiving a response?
A)
21 days
B)
7 days
C)
14 days
D)
30 days
Option D is correct: 30 days.
According to Section 2 of the Arms Act, 1959, which of the following is correctly defined under the Act?
A)
“Ammunition” includes only bullets and cartridges
B)
“Arms” includes firearms and lathi
C)
“Prohibited arms” means weapons of any description designed or adapted for thedischarge of any noxious liquid, gas or other such thing
D)
“Firearm” excludes hand-grenades, riot-pistols
Option C is correct: “Prohibited arms” means weapons of any description designed or adapted for thedischarge of any noxious liquid, gas or other such thing.
What does “information” mean under Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, 2005?
A)
Only official records maintained in physical form.
B)
Any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.
C)
Only information pertaining to government policies.
D)
Information available on government websites only.
Option B is correct: Any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form, and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force..
What is the meaning of “ Third Party “ under the RTI Act,2005?
A)
Any person other than the citizen making a request for information, including a public authority
B)
Any government official handling RTI applications
C)
Only foreign nationals
D)
Only private individuals not employed by the government
Option A is correct: Any person other than the citizen making a request for information, including a public authority.
Who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner under the RTI Act?
A)
President of India
B)
Chief Minister of the State
C)
Governor of the State
D)
Prime Minister of India
Option C is correct: Governor of the State.
What does Section 11 of the RTI Act, 2005, pertain to?
A)
Exemptions from disclosure of information
B)
Severability of information
C)
Obligations of public authorities
D)
Third-party information
Option D is correct: Third-party information.
Under the RTI Act, information concerning the life or liberty of a person must be provided within:
A)
7 days
B)
14 days
C)
48 hours
D)
24 hours
Option C is correct: 48 hours.
Which of the following statements about the appointment and term of office of the Director General of Police (DGP)is/are correct? (1) The Director General of Police so appointed, unless superannuating earlier, shall have a minimum tenure of three years (2) The post of Director General of Police shall be the senior-most position in the hierarchy of the Police Service in the state.
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 2
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 nor 2
Step-by-step analysis based on the Mizoram Police Act 2011 and established police administration guidelines in India:
1. Analysis of Statement (1): According to the guidelines for the appointment of the Director General of Police (DGP) and the administrative framework adopted under the Mizoram Police Act 2011 (aligned with Supreme Court directives in the 'Prakash Singh' case), the DGP is generally provided a minimum tenure of two to three years to ensure stability in police administration and to prevent arbitrary transfers. Specifically, in the context of the state's police regulations, the provision for a minimum tenure (unless superannuated) is a standard requirement to maintain professional autonomy.
2. Analysis of Statement (2): By definition and legal structure, the Director General of Police (DGP) is the highest-ranking police officer in a state. The DGP serves as the head of the state police force and is the senior-most position in the hierarchy of the Police Service within that state.
Since both statements are factually and legally correct regarding the office of the DGP in Mizoram, the correct option is 'Both 1 and 2'.
In the context of the Mizoram Police Manual,2005 what does the acronym VCNB stand for?
A)
Village Crime Notification Board
B)
Village Criminal Network Bulletin
C)
Village Crime Note Book
D)
Verified Criminal Name Book
In the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, the VCNB refers to the 'Village Crime Note Book'. This is a crucial administrative and operational record maintained by the police at the village level to keep a detailed account of criminal activities, history sheets of habitual offenders, and general crime trends within a specific village jurisdiction. It serves as a primary reference for intelligence gathering and crime prevention strategies in rural areas. Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they are not recognized terminology within the standard operating procedures of the Mizoram Police Manual.
Under which section of the ML(PC) Act, 2014 can a departmental officer be appointed as an expert?
A)
Section 39
B)
Section 40
C)
Section 42
D)
Section 43
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, Section 42 specifically deals with the appointment of experts. This section empowers the government or the authorized officer to appoint a person possessing specialized knowledge or experience (which can include a departmental officer with the requisite expertise) to act as an expert for the purpose of analyzing samples, providing technical opinions, or assisting in the investigation of offenses under the Act.
- Section 39 typically relates to the power of entry, search, and seizure.
- Section 40 generally pertains to the seizure of liquor and vessels.
- Section 43 usually deals with the disposal of confiscated liquor or related administrative procedures.
Therefore, Section 42 is the correct provision for the appointment of an expert.
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