← AD (Town Planning)
Past Questions
As per RFCTLARR, what is the minimum percentage of affected families that need to give their consent for acquiring land for private Projects?
A)
70%
B)
80%
C)
50%
D)
60%
The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act) mandates specific consent requirements for land acquisition depending on the purpose of the project. According to Section 2(2) of the Act, the consent requirements are as follows: 1. For Public-Private Partnership (PPP) projects, the consent of at least 70% of the affected families is required. 2. For Private Company or Private Projects, the consent of at least 80% of the affected families is required. Since the question specifically asks for 'private Projects', the correct threshold is 80%. Therefore, option (b) is correct, while option (a) refers to PPP projects, and options (c) and (d) are not applicable under this specific legal provision.
What is the full form of RFCTLARR, 2013 Act?
A)
Right for Community Transaction in Land Allocation and Rehabilitation and Resettlement
B)
Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement
C)
Right to Find Common Territory for livelihood, Rehabilitation and Resettlement
D)
None of the above
The RFCTLARR Act, 2013 is a landmark piece of legislation in India that replaced the colonial-era Land Acquisition Act of 1894. The full form is the 'Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013'.
Breakdown of the acronym:
- R: Right
- F: Fair (Compensation)
- C: Compensation
- T: Transparency
- L: Land
- A: Acquisition
- R: Rehabilitation
- R: Resettlement
Option (a) and (c) are fabricated phrases that do not correspond to the legal title of the Act. Option (b) accurately reflects the statutory name of the legislation which ensures that landowners receive fair market value for their land and that displaced families are provided with necessary rehabilitation and resettlement packages.
As per National Health Mission, how many Primary Health Centre (PHC) is dedicated for 20000 tribal population?
A)
4
B)
3
C)
2
D)
1
Under the guidelines of the National Health Mission (NHM) and the Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS), the norms for the establishment of Primary Health Centres (PHCs) are based on population density and terrain. For plain areas, a PHC is typically established for every 30,000 people. However, for hilly, tribal, or difficult terrain areas, the population norm is reduced to ensure better accessibility to healthcare. In these tribal/hilly areas, one PHC is dedicated to every 20,000 people. Therefore, for a tribal population of 20,000, 1 PHC is required.
Who among the following had propounded the concept of ‘Trusteeship’?
A)
M.N Roy
B)
Aurobindo Ghosh
C)
GK Gokhale
D)
Mahatma Gandhi
The concept of 'Trusteeship' was propounded by Mahatma Gandhi. It is a socio-economic philosophy that suggests wealthy individuals should act as 'trustees' of their wealth for the benefit of the common people, rather than viewing themselves as sole owners. Gandhi believed that this approach would resolve class conflict and achieve social justice without the need for violent revolution or forced redistribution of wealth.
Why other options are incorrect:
- M.N. Roy: He was a prominent figure in the Communist movement and later the founder of Radical Humanism, focusing on scientific rationalism and atheism.
- Aurobindo Ghosh: He was a spiritual philosopher and nationalist known for his theories on integral yoga and spiritual evolution.
- GK Gokhale: He was a moderate leader of the Indian National Congress who focused on constitutional reforms and administrative improvements through legal means.
The Planning Commission was established in the year
A)
1950
B)
1955
C)
1960
D)
1965
The Planning Commission of India was established on March 15, 1950, by a Government of India resolution. It was a non-constitutional, non-statutory body created to formulate Five-Year Plans for the economic development of the country. It functioned as the central agency for economic planning until it was replaced by the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) on January 1, 2015. Options b (1955), c (1960), and d (1965) are incorrect as the commission had already been operational for several years by those dates.
Formation of NITI AYOG was announced in
A)
15 August 2018
B)
15 August 2014
C)
15 August 2016
D)
26 January 2016
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established to replace the Planning Commission of India. 2. The formation of NITI Aayog was officially announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day speech on 15 August 2014. 3. While the announcement was made on 15 August 2014, the formal government resolution to establish the body was passed on 1 January 2015. 4. Comparing this to the options provided: Option (a) 2018, (c) 2016, and (d) 2016 are chronologically incorrect as the announcement happened in 2014. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of succeeding activities is known as
A)
Duration
B)
Total Float
C)
Free Float
D)
Interfering Float
In project management (specifically in CPM/PERT networks), 'Float' or 'Slack' refers to the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project or subsequent activities.
1. **Free Float (FF):** This is defined as the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start (ES) of any immediate successor activity. The formula is: FF = ES (next activity) - EF (current activity). This matches the definition provided in the question.
2. **Total Float (TF):** This is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the overall project completion date. Total float is generally larger than or equal to free float.
3. **Interfering Float (IF):** This is the difference between Total Float and Free Float. It is the part of the total float that, if used, will delay the start of succeeding activities but not the project completion date.
4. **Duration:** This is simply the total time required to complete an activity, not a measure of delay flexibility.
Therefore, since the question specifically mentions not affecting the 'start of succeeding activities', the correct term is Free Float.
Which of the below process is not associated with Project integration Management area?
A)
Plan Scope Management
B)
Develop Project Management Plan
C)
Direct and Manage Project Work
D)
Monitor and Control Project Work
Project Integration Management is one of the ten Knowledge Areas defined by the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK). Its primary purpose is to coordinate all other project management processes. The processes associated with Project Integration Management include: 1. Develop Project Charter, 2. Develop Project Management Plan, 3. Direct and Manage Project Work, 4. Manage Project Knowledge, 5. Monitor and Control Project Work, 6. Perform Integrated Change Control, and 7. Close Project or Phase.
Analyzing the options:
- Option (b) 'Develop Project Management Plan' is a core Integration process.
- Option (c) 'Direct and Manage Project Work' is a core Integration process.
- Option (d) 'Monitor and Control Project Work' is a core Integration process.
- Option (a) 'Plan Scope Management' belongs to the 'Project Scope Management' knowledge area, not the Integration Management area. Therefore, it is the correct answer as it is NOT associated with Project Integration Management.
The project life cycle consists of:
A)
Understanding the scope of project
B)
Objectives of the project
C)
Formulation and planning various activities
D)
All of these
The Project Life Cycle (PLC) is the sequence of phases that a project goes through from its initiation to its closure. While different methodologies (like Waterfall or Agile) define phases differently, they all encompass the core elements listed in the options:
1. Understanding the scope of the project (Option a): This occurs during the Initiation and Planning phases. Defining the scope is critical to determine what is included and excluded from the project to avoid scope creep.
2. Objectives of the project (Option b): Establishing clear, measurable objectives is the primary goal of the Initiation phase. Without defined objectives, a project cannot be measured for success.
3. Formulation and planning various activities (Option c): This is the core of the Planning phase, where the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), schedules, resource allocation, and risk management plans are developed.
Since all three components are integral parts of the overall project life cycle process, the correct answer is 'All of these'.
The process of forecasting or approximating the time and cost of completing project deliverables is called
A)
Budgeting
B)
Estimating
C)
Planning
D)
None of these
In Project Management, 'Estimating' is the specific process of forecasting or approximating the time, cost, and resources required to complete project deliverables. It involves using techniques such as Analogous Estimating, Parametric Estimating, or Three-Point Estimating to predict future requirements based on available data.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Budgeting: This is the process of allocating the estimated costs to specific time periods or work packages to create a cost baseline. Budgeting happens *after* estimating.
- c. Planning: This is a broad, overarching phase that encompasses estimating, budgeting, scheduling, and risk management. While estimating is part of planning, 'planning' itself is not the specific act of forecasting time and cost.
- d. None of these: Incorrect, as 'Estimating' accurately describes the process defined in the question.
Which one of the following does have some limitation when applied to detailed engineering design work during early stages of project?
A)
CPM
B)
PERT
C)
Dummy Activity
D)
Estimate
To determine the correct answer, we must analyze the characteristics of the two primary project management techniques: CPM (Critical Path Method) and PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique).
1. **CPM (Critical Path Method):** CPM is a deterministic model. It assumes that the time required to complete each activity is known with certainty based on previous experience. Because it relies on fixed time estimates, it is highly effective for repetitive, well-defined projects (like construction). However, during the 'early stages' of detailed engineering design work, there is often high uncertainty and a lack of historical data for specific tasks. Applying a deterministic model (CPM) to an uncertain environment is a significant limitation.
2. **PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique):** PERT is a probabilistic model. It uses three time estimates (Optimistic, Most Likely, and Pessimistic) to account for uncertainty. This makes PERT specifically designed for R&D and early-stage engineering projects where activity durations are not known with certainty.
3. **Dummy Activity:** This is a logical tool used in AOA (Activity-on-Arrow) networks to show dependencies; it is not a project management methodology and does not have 'limitations' regarding the stage of design in the same context as CPM/PERT.
4. **Estimate:** An estimate is a general term for predicting costs or time; it is a component of planning, not a scheduling system with systemic limitations in the context of CPM vs PERT.
Conclusion: Since detailed engineering design in early stages involves high uncertainty, the deterministic nature of CPM makes it limited compared to the probabilistic nature of PERT.
Fulkerson s rule is connected with the
A)
numbering of event in PERT/CPM
B)
creation of parallel activity
C)
queuing activity
D)
elimination of dummy activity
Fulkerson's Rule is a systematic procedure used in Project Management (specifically in PERT and CPM networks) to number the events (nodes) of a network diagram. The rule ensures that for every activity, the event number at the head (terminal node) is always greater than the event number at the tail (starting node).
Step-by-step application of Fulkerson's Rule:
1. Identify the initial event (start node) and assign it number 1.
2. Identify all events that can be reached from event 1 by a single activity. Number these events sequentially (2, 3, 4...).
3. Repeat the process for the newly numbered events, ensuring that no event is numbered until all its preceding events have been numbered.
4. Continue until the final event (sink node) is reached and numbered.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option b (creation of parallel activity): Parallel activities are a structural feature of the network, not a numbering rule.
- Option c (queuing activity): Queuing is related to Queueing Theory/Operations Research, not the numbering of network events.
- Option d (elimination of dummy activity): Dummy activities are used to maintain logical relationships; their elimination is part of network simplification or optimization, not Fulkerson's Rule.
A Pictorial chart is made for the construction project in item wise with the duration of time is known as
A)
Duration chart
B)
Bar Chart
C)
Time Chart
D)
Project Chart
In project management, a Bar Chart (specifically the Gantt Chart) is a pictorial representation used to schedule project activities. It lists the project items (tasks) on the vertical axis and the time scale on the horizontal axis. Each activity is represented by a horizontal bar; the length of the bar corresponds to the duration of the activity, and its position indicates the start and finish dates.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Duration chart: This is a general term and not a standard technical name for a specific pictorial scheduling tool.
- c. Time chart: While it involves time, 'Time Chart' is too generic and does not specifically refer to the item-wise pictorial bar representation used in construction planning.
- d. Project chart: This is a broad term that could refer to any chart related to a project (like an organizational chart or a PERT chart), whereas the description specifically matches the definition of a Bar Chart.
A PERT network has 9 activities on its critical path. The standard deviation of each activity on the critical path is 3. The standard deviation of the critical path is
A)
3
B)
9
C)
27
D)
81
In PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique), the total variance of a path is the sum of the variances of the individual activities on that path.
1. **Given Data**:
- Number of activities on the critical path (n) = 9
- Standard deviation of each activity (σ_i) = 3
2. **Calculate Variance of each activity**:
Variance (σ²) is the square of the standard deviation.
σ_i² = 3² = 9
3. **Calculate Total Variance of the Critical Path (σ_path²)**:
σ_path² = Σ (σ_i²)
Since there are 9 activities with the same variance:
σ_path² = 9 × 9 = 81
4. **Calculate Standard Deviation of the Critical Path (σ_path)**:
The standard deviation is the square root of the total variance.
σ_path = √81 = 9
Therefore, the standard deviation of the critical path is 9.
- Option (a) is incorrect because it is the standard deviation of a single activity.
- Option (c) is incorrect as it results from multiplying the number of activities by the standard deviation (9 * 3), which is mathematically incorrect for independent random variables.
- Option (d) is incorrect because it is the total variance, not the standard deviation.
is evident that order to identify, assess and predict the environmental impacts.
A)
Environmental attributes
B)
Environmental impact
C)
Complex system
D)
Variable parameter
In the context of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), the process of identifying, assessing, and predicting impacts requires the selection of specific 'Environmental Attributes' (also known as Valued Ecosystem Components or VECs). An environmental attribute is a specific characteristic of the environment (e.g., air quality, water purity, biodiversity, or noise levels) that is measured to determine if a project will cause a significant change.
1. Why 'Environmental attributes' is correct: To predict an impact, one must first define the attribute being measured. For example, to assess the impact on 'Air Quality' (the attribute), one predicts the change in 'PM10 levels' (the parameter).
2. Why 'Environmental impact' is incorrect: The impact is the result of the assessment, not the tool used to identify and predict the impact.
3. Why 'Complex system' is incorrect: While the environment is a complex system, the system itself is not the specific mechanism used to identify and predict individual impacts.
4. Why 'Variable parameter' is incorrect: While parameters are used for measurement, 'Environmental attributes' is the standard technical term used in EIA frameworks to categorize the components of the environment being evaluated.
HUDCO is related to
A)
Private financial agency
B)
Luxury apartment
C)
Private palace
D)
Low-cost housing
HUDCO stands for the Housing and Urban Development Corporation Limited. It is a government-owned company (a Mini Ratna) under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India. Its primary objective is to provide financial assistance for housing and urban infrastructure projects. Specifically, HUDCO focuses heavily on providing loans for the construction of low-cost housing, slum upgrading, and affordable housing schemes to ensure that the economically weaker sections (EWS) and low-income groups (LIG) have access to adequate shelter.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): HUDCO is a public sector undertaking (PSU), not a private financial agency.
- Option (b): While HUDCO may fund various urban projects, its core mandate and social objective are centered on affordability and urban development rather than the promotion of luxury apartments.
- Option (c): HUDCO is a corporate financial institution and has no relation to the construction or management of private palaces.
Which of the following diseases or infections is caused due to poor water hygiene?
A)
Leprosy
B)
Trachoma
C)
Conjunctivitis
D)
Allofthese
Poor water hygiene and lack of access to clean water for personal hygiene contribute to the spread of various infectious diseases.
1. Trachoma: This is a neglected tropical disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is strongly associated with poor water hygiene and lack of facial cleanliness, as it spreads through contact with eye or nose discharges from infected people or via flies that breed in unsanitary conditions.
2. Conjunctivitis: Many forms of conjunctivitis (pink eye), particularly bacterial and viral types, are spread through contaminated hands and water, or by using contaminated water to wash the eyes.
3. Leprosy: While primarily transmitted via droplets from the nose and mouth during close and frequent contact, historical and public health data indicate that poor living conditions, overcrowding, and lack of basic hygiene (including water hygiene) facilitate the transmission and persistence of Mycobacterium leprae in communities.
Since all three conditions are exacerbated or caused by poor hygiene and lack of clean water for sanitation, the correct option is 'Allofthese'.
After which international conference, constitutional sanction was given to environmental concerns through the 42nd Amendment.
A)
United Nations Conference on Human Environment, Stockholm 1972
B)
The Earth Summit-The Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, 1992
C)
Montreal Protocol on the Ozone Layer 1997
D)
IPCC 1990
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is a landmark amendment to the Constitution of India. It introduced environmental protection into the constitutional framework by adding Article 48A (Directive Principles of State Policy), which mandates that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment, and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duties), which mandates that every citizen shall strive to protect and improve the natural environment. This constitutional shift was a direct result of India's commitment to the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (UNCHE) held in Stockholm in 1972. India was a signatory to the Stockholm Declaration, and the subsequent domestic legal changes (including the 42nd Amendment and the enactment of the Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981) were intended to fulfill those international obligations.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option b: The Rio Earth Summit took place in 1992, long after the 42nd Amendment (1976).
- Option c: The Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987 (not 1997) and focuses specifically on ozone-depleting substances, not the general constitutional framework for environment.
- Option d: The IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) was established in 1988, which is after the 42nd Amendment.
Which of the following is responsible for reducing global CFC production by half?
A)
Copenhagen Protocol
B)
Montreal Protocol
C)
Kyoto Protocol
D)
Convention on Long range Transboundary Air Pollution
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the primary target of this protocol. The treaty established a mandatory timetable for the reduction and eventual elimination of CFCs.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Copenhagen Protocol: While there were 'Copenhagen Accords' regarding climate change (2009), there is no primary 'Copenhagen Protocol' responsible for CFC reduction; rather, Copenhagen hosted amendments to the Montreal Protocol in 1992 to accelerate the phase-out.
- c. Kyoto Protocol: This treaty focused on reducing greenhouse gas emissions (such as CO2 and Methane) to combat global warming, not specifically on ozone-depleting substances like CFCs.
- d. Convention on Long range Transboundary Air Pollution (CLRTAP): This was the first international legally binding instrument to deal with problems of air pollution on a broad regional basis (primarily Europe and North America), focusing on pollutants like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, rather than global CFC production.
Water Act is a main law in action used for EIA formulated in
A)
1981
B)
1974
C)
1975
D)
1986
The question asks for the year the Water Act was formulated, which serves as a foundational law for environmental regulations and Environmental Impact Assessments (EIA) in India.
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974. It was the first major environmental law in India aimed at preventing and controlling water pollution and providing a legal framework for the establishment of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs).
2. Option (a) 1981 refers to the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.
3. Option (c) 1975 is not associated with a primary environmental act of this nature.
4. Option (d) 1986 refers to the Environment (Protection) Act, which is an 'umbrella' legislation that provides the broad framework for EIA notifications, but the specific 'Water Act' mentioned in the prompt was formulated in 1974.
The Environment Protection act of 1986 came into the force soon after tragedy.
A)
Orissa Super Cyclone
B)
Gujarat Earthquake
C)
Bhopal Gas
D)
Tsunami
The Environment Protection Act (EPA) of 1986 was enacted by the Parliament of India in the wake of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy, which occurred on the night of December 2-3, 1984. The tragedy involved the leak of Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) gas from the Union Carbide India Limited plant, resulting in thousands of deaths and long-term health issues for survivors. This catastrophic event highlighted the urgent need for a comprehensive environmental framework to coordinate the activities of various central and state authorities and to provide the central government with the power to protect and improve environmental quality.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Orissa Super Cyclone: Occurred in 1999, long after the EPA 1986 was enacted.
- b. Gujarat Earthquake: The major earthquake occurred in 2001, long after the EPA 1986.
- d. Tsunami: The Indian Ocean Tsunami occurred in 2004, long after the EPA 1986.
Which of the following describes the usage of the topographic survey?
A)
Sanitary line maps
B)
Water line maps
C)
Electric line maps
D)
Topographic maps
A topographic survey is a detailed survey used to determine the relative locations of natural and man-made features on the earth's surface, including elevations (contours). The primary output or usage of a topographic survey is the creation of a Topographic Map. While sanitary, water, and electric line maps are types of 'Utility Maps' or 'Engineering Maps' that may rely on a topographic base, they are specific subsets of infrastructure mapping. A topographic survey, by definition, is designed to produce a comprehensive topographic map showing the terrain and existing features of a specific area.
The baseline studies in EIA pertain to
A)
Collection of demographic data only
B)
prediction of significant residual environmental impact
C)
existing environmental settling of proposed development area
D)
selection of best project option available
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Definition of Baseline Studies**: In Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), baseline studies involve the collection of data on the existing environmental status of the project area before any development takes place. This serves as a 'benchmark' or 'reference point' against which future changes caused by the project can be measured.
2. **Scope of Baseline Data**: Baseline studies cover a wide range of parameters, including physical (air, water, soil, noise), biological (flora, fauna), and socio-economic (demographics, land use) conditions.
3. **Evaluating Option (c)**: The phrase 'existing environmental settling' (likely a typo for 'setting' or 'status') refers to the current state of the environment in the proposed development area. This aligns perfectly with the definition of baseline studies.
4. **Evaluating Option (a)**: Demographic data is only one small part of the socio-economic baseline; baseline studies are not limited to demographics alone.
5. **Evaluating Option (b)**: Prediction of residual impacts occurs during the 'Impact Prediction' and 'Mitigation' phases of the EIA, which happen *after* the baseline data has been established.
6. **Evaluating Option (d)**: Selection of the best project option is part of the 'Alternatives Analysis' phase, which uses baseline data as an input but is not the baseline study itself.
Slum Free City Plan of Action is part of
A)
RAY
B)
IAY
C)
PMGSY
D)
PMC
The 'Slum Free City' approach is a core component of the Rajiv Awas Yojana (RAY), launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA), Government of India. RAY was designed to make cities 'slum-free' by providing sustainable housing to the urban poor, focusing on in-situ slum redevelopment and the provision of basic services.
Analysis of other options:
- b. IAY (Indira Awas Yojana): This was a rural housing scheme (now merged into PMAY-G) focused on providing houses to the rural poor, not urban slum-free city planning.
- c. PMGSY (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana): This is a rural road connectivity program, unrelated to housing or slum redevelopment.
- d. PMC (Pune Municipal Corporation or similar): This refers to a local urban body, not a national housing scheme or policy framework.
Which types of settlements are found in alluvial plains?
A)
Hamleted
B)
Dispersed
C)
Clustered
D)
None of these
In settlement geography, the pattern of human habitation is heavily influenced by physical geography and resource availability.
1. **Clustered (or Nucleated) Settlements**: These are compact settlements where houses are built close to each other. They are typically found in fertile alluvial plains (like the Indo-Gangetic plains) because the high productivity of the land supports a dense population. In these regions, farmers live together in a central village and travel outward to their fields. This pattern is driven by the need for social security, shared resources, and the availability of fertile soil.
2. **Hamleted Settlements**: These are a variation of clustered settlements where a large village is fragmented into smaller units called hamlets (often based on caste or kinship). While they occur in plains, they are a subset of the clustered logic rather than the primary characteristic of the plain's geography itself.
3. **Dispersed Settlements**: These are characterized by isolated houses or farmsteads far apart from each other. These are typically found in hilly terrains, deserts, or heavily forested areas where the land is not uniformly fertile or the topography is rugged, making it impossible for people to cluster together.
Therefore, the fertile and flat nature of alluvial plains naturally leads to the development of clustered settlements.