AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
NUHHP stands for
A)
National United Housing & Habitat Policy
B)
National Urban Housing & Habitat Policy
C)
National Upgraded Housing & Habitat Policy
D)
National Urban Habitat & House Policy
NUHHP stands for the National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy. This policy was formulated by the Government of India (Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs) to provide a comprehensive framework for ensuring affordable housing and improving the living conditions (habitat) for the urban population, particularly the urban poor and marginalized sections.
Analyzing the options:
- Option (a) 'United' is incorrect as the policy focuses on the 'Urban' sector.
- Option (b) 'National Urban Housing & Habitat Policy' is the correct official terminology.
- Option (c) 'Upgraded' is incorrect; the policy is a foundational framework, not an 'upgraded' version of a previous one by that specific name.
- Option (d) 'Urban Habitat & House Policy' is incorrect because the standard terminology used in government documentation is 'Housing & Habitat'.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which of the following techniques is used to remove fluorides from the water bodies?
A)
Osmosis
B)
Ion exchange
C)
Lime softening
D)
Both (b) & (c)
Fluoride removal (defluoridation) is necessary when fluoride levels exceed the permissible limit (usually 1.5 mg/L) to prevent dental and skeletal fluorosis.
1. **Ion Exchange (Option b):** This is a widely recognized and effective technique for fluoride removal. Strong base anion exchange resins are used to exchange fluoride ions (F-) with chloride or hydroxide ions. This is a standard industrial and laboratory method for removing specific ions from water.
2. **Osmosis (Option a):** While Reverse Osmosis (RO) is highly effective at removing fluorides, the option provided is 'Osmosis'. Osmosis is a natural process where solvent moves from low solute concentration to high solute concentration; it does not remove contaminants. Reverse Osmosis (the forced opposite) would be correct, but 'Osmosis' alone is not a treatment technique.
3. **Lime Softening (Option c):** Lime softening is used primarily to remove hardness (calcium and magnesium ions) from water. It is not an effective method for removing fluoride ions.
Since only Ion Exchange is a valid technique among the listed options, option (d) is also incorrect.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Among the following, which is not a principle of the topographic survey?
A)
Establishing horizontal and vertical control
B)
Orientation of each survey
C)
Orientation of only main station
D)
Work with most accurate methods
Topographic surveying is the process of determining the positions of natural and man-made features on the earth's surface. To ensure accuracy and consistency across a map, certain fundamental principles must be followed:
1. **Establishing horizontal and vertical control (Option a):** This is a core principle. Horizontal control (traversing/triangulation) and vertical control (leveling) provide the framework upon which all other details are plotted.
2. **Orientation of each survey (Option b):** To ensure that the map is correctly aligned with true north or a known reference meridian, every survey session or 'tie-in' must be oriented. This prevents rotational errors from accumulating.
3. **Work with most accurate methods (Option d):** Topographic surveys often serve as the base for engineering projects; therefore, utilizing the most accurate methods available for the required scale is a standard principle.
**Why Option (c) is the correct answer:** Orientation of *only* the main station is insufficient. If only the primary control point is oriented and subsequent stations or survey legs are not checked for orientation, 'angular drift' or rotational errors occur. Every survey station or set of measurements must be oriented to maintain the integrity of the spatial data. Therefore, 'Orientation of only main station' is NOT a principle of topographic surveying; it is a flawed practice.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which of the following is not the strategy for Rental Housing in India?
A)
Institutionalise rent-to-own schemes
B)
Reform in rent control acts to ensure the right of owner and rented
C)
Promote rental housing for various sizes and economic groups
D)
Land Allotment
The question asks for the option that is NOT a specific strategy for promoting 'Rental Housing' in India.
1. **Option (a) Institutionalise rent-to-own schemes**: This is a recognized strategy to bridge the gap between renting and owning, allowing low-income groups to eventually own their homes through rental payments. This is a specific rental housing strategy.
2. **Option (b) Reform in rent control acts**: Outdated rent control laws in India often discourage owners from renting out properties due to low fixed rents and difficulty in eviction. Reforming these acts (such as the Model Tenancy Act) is a primary strategy to incentivize the rental market.
3. **Option (c) Promote rental housing for various sizes and economic groups**: This refers to the diversification of the rental market (e.g., Affordable Rental Housing Complexes - ARHCs) to cater to migrant laborers, students, and middle-income groups, which is a core strategy of the government.
4. **Option (d) Land Allotment**: While land allotment is a general mechanism for any urban development or housing project (including ownership housing), it is a general administrative process rather than a specific 'strategy' tailored to the rental housing ecosystem. Rental housing strategies focus on the management, regulation, and financial models of leasing, whereas land allotment is a prerequisite for any construction, regardless of whether the end goal is rental or sale.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
What is the population density of Assam?
A)
398 per sqkm
B)
500 per sqkm
C)
250per sqkm
D)
867 per sqkm
According to the official Census of India 2011, which is the standard data source for competitive examinations unless otherwise specified, the population density of Assam is 398 persons per square kilometer.
Calculation/Data Verification:
- Total Population of Assam (2011): ~31,205,576
- Total Area of Assam: ~78,438 sq km
- Population Density = Total Population / Total Area ≈ 398 per sq km.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 398 per sqkm: Correct as per Census 2011.
- Option (b) 500 per sqkm: Incorrect; this exceeds the state average.
- Option (c) 250 per sqkm: Incorrect; this is significantly lower than the state average.
- Option (d) 867 per sqkm: Incorrect; this is closer to the density of highly populated states like West Bengal or Bihar.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Tenure classified into
A)
Free hold, Lease hold, Rental
B)
Free venture, joint venture
C)
Fixed Grip, non-fixed grip
D)
Free speculation, joint speculation
In the context of land tenure and real estate, 'tenure' refers to the legal regime in which land is owned or held. The primary classifications of land tenure are: 1. Freehold: The owner has absolute ownership of the land and the buildings on it for an indefinite period. 2. Leasehold: The owner (lessor) grants another party (lessee) the right to use the land for a specific period in exchange for rent. 3. Rental: A shorter-term arrangement where a tenant pays for the use of the property without ownership rights. Options b, c, and d contain terms like 'venture', 'grip', and 'speculation', which refer to business models, physical holds, or market behaviors, rather than legal systems of land tenure.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is required
A)
Before the Project
B)
After the Project
C)
During the Project
D)
Anytime in life cycle of the project
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a proactive planning tool used to identify, predict, and evaluate the potential environmental effects of a proposed project before any major decisions are made or actions are taken.
1. Why 'Before the Project' is correct: The primary purpose of EIA is to ensure that environmental considerations are integrated into the project design and decision-making process. By conducting the EIA beforehand, authorities can decide whether the project should proceed, modify the project to minimize damage, or reject it entirely if the environmental costs are too high. This is known as the 'preventative principle'.
2. Why 'After the Project' is incorrect: Assessing impacts after the project is completed is called an 'Environmental Audit' or 'Post-Project Analysis'. While useful for monitoring, it cannot prevent the damage that has already occurred.
3. Why 'During the Project' is incorrect: Monitoring occurs during the project (Environmental Management Plan), but the 'Assessment' (EIA) must happen prior to construction to obtain the necessary Environmental Clearance (EC).
4. Why 'Anytime in life cycle' is incorrect: While monitoring is continuous, the formal EIA process is a prerequisite for project approval and must occur at the planning stage.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
What is the purpose of the “screening” step of EIA?
A)
To assess the quality of the project design
B)
To facilitate informed decision making by providing clear, well-structured, factual analysis of the effects and consequences of proposed actions
C)
To determine whether a full EIA needed
D)
Both (b) & (c)
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) follows a systematic sequence of steps.
1. **Screening**: This is the first stage of the EIA process. Its primary purpose is to determine whether a proposed project is likely to have significant environmental effects and, therefore, whether a full-scale EIA study is required. Projects are typically screened based on their scale, location, and nature (e.g., Category A vs Category B projects in many jurisdictions).
2. **Scoping**: Once it is decided that an EIA is needed, scoping identifies which potential impacts are most important to study.
3. **Impact Analysis/Assessment**: This involves the actual technical study of the effects.
Evaluating the options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because assessing project design quality is a part of engineering or architectural review, not the specific purpose of the screening step.
- Option (b) describes the overall purpose of the entire EIA process (the final Environmental Impact Statement), not specifically the 'screening' step.
- Option (c) accurately defines the specific function of screening: deciding if the project warrants a full EIA.
- Option (d) is incorrect because (b) refers to the general goal of EIA, whereas the question asks specifically for the 'screening' step.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which of the following techniques is used to determine the concentration of odour compounds in the given water sample?
A)
Settling
B)
Flushing
C)
Stripping
D)
Chlorination
In water treatment, 'stripping' (specifically air stripping) is a process used to remove volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and dissolved gases that cause unpleasant odors and tastes from water. It involves transferring the volatile compounds from the liquid phase (water) to the gas phase (air). By measuring the amount of compound removed or the concentration in the air stream, the concentration of odor-causing compounds in the water sample can be determined or reduced.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Settling: This is a physical process used to remove suspended solids (sedimentation) and does not target dissolved odor compounds.
- b. Flushing: This is a maintenance procedure used in piping systems to remove stagnant water or accumulated debris; it is not an analytical or treatment technique for measuring odor concentrations.
- d. Chlorination: This is a disinfection process used to kill pathogens. While it can oxidize some odor-causing compounds, it is primarily used for sterilization and can sometimes actually create new odors (like chloramines) rather than being a technique to determine the concentration of existing odor compounds.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which is the largest agricultural north eastern state?
A)
Assam
B)
Meghalaya
C)
Tripura
D)
Arunachal Pradesh
To determine the largest agricultural state in North East India, we look at both the land area under cultivation and the total agricultural output.
1. **Assam**: It is the most populous and largest economy among the North Eastern states. It possesses the largest expanse of fertile alluvial plains (the Brahmaputra valley), making it the leader in agricultural production, particularly for tea (the largest producer in India) and rice.
2. **Meghalaya, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh**: While these states engage in significant agriculture (such as Jhum cultivation or rubber in Tripura), their total cultivated area and overall agricultural output are significantly lower than those of Assam due to their mountainous terrain and smaller plains.
Therefore, in terms of scale, production, and land utilization for agriculture, Assam is the largest agricultural state in the North East.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which layer of atmosphere contains the ozone responsible for the absorption of UV rays?
A)
Stratosphere
B)
Troposphere
C)
Mesosphere
D)
None of these
The Earth's atmosphere is divided into several layers based on temperature gradients. The stratosphere is the second layer, located above the troposphere and below the mesosphere. It contains the 'Ozone Layer' (ozonosphere), where a high concentration of ozone (O3) molecules exists. This ozone layer is critical for life on Earth because it absorbs the majority of the sun's harmful medium-frequency ultraviolet (UV-B) radiation, preventing it from reaching the surface.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Troposphere: This is the lowest layer where weather occurs. While some ozone exists here (ground-level ozone), it is considered a pollutant and smog component, not the protective layer responsible for UV absorption.
- c. Mesosphere: This is the middle layer where most meteors burn up; it does not contain a significant concentration of ozone.
- d. None of these: Incorrect, as the stratosphere is the scientifically established location of the ozone layer.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
The TPS are micro plans prepared for about hectares of area.
A)
50 to 100
B)
100 to 150
C)
100 to 200
D)
200 to 250
TPS stands for Town Planning Scheme, a land-pooling mechanism widely used in India (particularly in Gujarat and Maharashtra) for planned urban expansion. A Town Planning Scheme is designed as a 'micro-plan' to ensure that land is reorganized for public infrastructure (roads, open spaces, amenities) without the need for expensive land acquisition. According to standard urban planning guidelines and the operational manuals for TPS, these schemes are typically prepared for manageable micro-areas. While the size can vary based on the specific urban context, the standard benchmark for a micro-plan unit in a TPS is generally between 100 to 200 hectares. This size allows for an efficient layout of a neighborhood unit, ensuring that residential areas are within walking distance of basic amenities and that the road hierarchy is logically structured.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which North-eastern state has the highest female literacy rate?
A)
Manipur
B)
Tripura
C)
Mizoram
D)
Arunachal Pradesh
Based on the most recent comprehensive census data (Census 2011) and subsequent National Sample Survey (NSS) reports, Mizoram consistently records the highest literacy rates in the North-eastern region of India, both overall and specifically for females.
1. Mizoram: Has a female literacy rate of approximately 91.1% (Census 2011), which is the highest among the options provided and the highest in the North-east.
2. Tripura: Also has a high literacy rate, but it generally trails behind Mizoram in female literacy percentages.
3. Manipur: Has a significant literacy rate, but it is lower than that of Mizoram and Tripura.
4. Arunachal Pradesh: Historically has lower literacy rates compared to the other three states listed due to geographical and infrastructural challenges.
Therefore, Mizoram is the correct answer as it leads the North-eastern states in female literacy.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which of the following units is used for measuring the turbidity of water?
A)
FAU-Formazin Attenuation
B)
None
C)
None
D)
None
Turbidity is a measure of the cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by large numbers of individual particles that are generally invisible to the naked eye. The standard unit for measuring turbidity is the Nephelometric Turbidity Unit (NTU). However, the international standard for calibrating turbidimeters is based on Formazin, a synthetic polymer. The Formazin Attenuation Unit (FAU) is the fundamental unit used to quantify the attenuation of light by a Formazin suspension. While NTU is more common in daily reporting, FAU is the scientifically recognized unit for the attenuation of light in water quality analysis. In the given options, 'FAU-Formazin Attenuation' is the only technically correct unit listed for measuring turbidity.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
The density of population is the number of people per unit area of arable land.
A)
Physiological
B)
Phishing
C)
Physical
D)
Psychological
In population geography, there are different ways to measure population density.
1. **Arithmetic Density**: This is the total population divided by the total land area. It provides a general average but does not account for the fact that some land (like mountains or deserts) is uninhabitable.
2. **Physiological Density**: This is defined as the number of people per unit area of **arable land** (land suitable for agriculture). It is a more accurate measure of the pressure a population puts on its food-producing resources.
3. **Agricultural Density**: This is the ratio of the number of farmers to the amount of arable land.
Analyzing the options:
- **Option a (Physiological)**: Correct. By definition, physiological density relates population to arable land.
- **Option b (Phishing)**: Incorrect. Phishing is a cybercrime term related to fraudulent attempts to obtain sensitive information.
- **Option c (Physical)**: Incorrect. While 'physical' refers to the land, it is not the technical term used for this specific demographic calculation.
- **Option d (Psychological)**: Incorrect. This refers to mental and emotional states, not geographic population metrics.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
The number of farmers per unit area of farmland is known as
A)
Working density of a population
B)
Agriculture density of a population
C)
Rural density of a population
D)
Industrial density of population
In population geography, different types of density are used to measure the pressure of population on land.
1. **Agricultural Density** is specifically defined as the ratio of the total agricultural population (farmers) to the total area of land under cultivation (farmland). It measures the pressure on the land that is actually being farmed. Formula: (Total Farmers / Total Arable Land).
2. **Physiological Density** (not listed but related) is the ratio of the total population to the total arable land.
3. **Arithmetic Density** is the total population divided by the total land area.
Evaluating the options:
- **Option a (Working density)** is not a standard geographical term for this specific ratio.
- **Option b (Agriculture density)** correctly describes the number of farmers per unit of farmland.
- **Option c (Rural density)** refers to the total population living in rural areas divided by the rural land area, regardless of whether they are farmers.
- **Option d (Industrial density)** refers to the concentration of industrial workers or units in a given area, which is irrelevant to farmland.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Prediction of impact is
A)
Qualitative
B)
Quantitative
C)
Economic
D)
Beneficial
In the process of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), 'Prediction' is the stage where the magnitude and extent of the impacts identified during the screening and scoping phases are estimated. While impact identification can be qualitative, the 'Prediction' phase specifically aims to quantify the changes in the environment. This involves using mathematical models, statistical data, and scientific simulations to determine 'how much' a parameter (such as air quality, noise levels, or water pollution) will change. Therefore, prediction is primarily a quantitative exercise.
- Option (a) Qualitative: This refers to the description of the nature of the impact (e.g., 'increase' or 'decrease'), which is more characteristic of the 'Identification' phase.
- Option (c) Economic: This refers to a specific type of impact (Cost-Benefit Analysis), not the method of prediction itself.
- Option (d) Beneficial: This describes the polarity of an impact (positive vs. negative), not the process of predicting it.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which of the following statements are false
A)
land use planning systems do the same thing as EIA
B)
EIA is costly and time consuming
C)
EIA is intended to be a rational and comprehensive assessment
D)
EIA isa process
Step-by-step analysis of the statements:
1. Statement (a): 'land use planning systems do the same thing as EIA'. This is FALSE. Land use planning is a strategic, broad-scale process used to designate where certain activities (residential, industrial, agricultural) should occur across a region. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), however, is a project-specific tool used to predict the environmental consequences of a specific proposed development to decide whether it should proceed and how to mitigate its impacts. While they are complementary, they serve different functions.
2. Statement (b): 'EIA is costly and time consuming'. This is TRUE. Conducting a comprehensive EIA requires hiring specialists, performing field surveys, public consultations, and detailed reporting, all of which require significant financial investment and time.
3. Statement (c): 'EIA is intended to be a rational and comprehensive assessment'. This is TRUE. The core objective of EIA is to provide a systematic, science-based, and holistic evaluation of potential impacts to ensure informed decision-making.
4. Statement (d): 'EIA is a process'. This is TRUE. EIA is not a single report but a multi-stage process involving screening, scoping, impact analysis, mitigation, reporting, and monitoring.
Since the question asks for the FALSE statement, option (a) is the correct answer.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which of the following is not a type of horizontal angle used in case of topographic survey?
A)
Bearing
B)
Azimuth
C)
Horizontal angle
D)
Deflection angle
In surveying, specifically topographic and route surveys, 'horizontal angles' are categorized based on how they are measured relative to a reference meridian or a previous line.
1. **Bearing (Option a):** This is a specific type of horizontal angle measured from a reference meridian (North or South) to the survey line. It is a fundamental way of expressing direction.
2. **Azimuth (Option b):** This is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a prime meridian (usually North) to the line of sight. It is a standard method for defining direction in topographic surveys.
3. **Deflection Angle (Option d):** This is the horizontal angle between the extension of the preceding line and the forward line. It is commonly used in route surveys (roads, railways) to describe changes in direction.
**Why Option (c) is the correct answer:** 'Horizontal angle' is the general umbrella term that encompasses bearings, azimuths, and deflection angles. It is the category itself, not a specific 'type' of horizontal angle used for measurement/notation in the same way the others are. Therefore, it is logically inconsistent to list 'horizontal angle' as a specific type of horizontal angle.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Rajiv Awas Yojana (RAY) is for
A)
Provide houses for rural BPL population
B)
Provide houses for slum dwellers
C)
Provide housing finances for rural poor
D)
Provide housing finance to those not covered Indira Awas Yojana
Rajiv Awas Yojana (RAY) was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty (MoHUP) in 2009. Its primary objective is to make all slums 'slum-free' by providing secure tenure and housing to the urban poor/slum dwellers. It focuses on the redevelopment of slums through a partnership between the government, the community, and the private sector.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because RAY is an urban-centric scheme, not for the rural population.
- Option (c) is incorrect because it targets urban housing, not rural housing finance.
- Option (d) is incorrect because Indira Awas Yojana (IAY) was a rural housing scheme; RAY is specifically designed for urban slum rehabilitation and is not a supplementary finance scheme for IAY.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Private housing finance agencies in India.
A)
HUDCO
B)
LIC
C)
IDBI
D)
Co-operative banks
To identify the 'Private housing finance agency' among the options, we must categorize the institutions based on their ownership and operational nature in the Indian financial system:
1. **HUDCO (Housing and Urban Development Corporation Ltd):** This is a Government of India enterprise (Public Sector Undertaking) under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. It primarily provides wholesale finance to primary lending institutions rather than acting as a private agency.
2. **LIC (Life Insurance Corporation of India):** While LIC is a statutory corporation owned by the government, in the context of housing finance markets, it operates as a non-banking financial entity that provides housing loans to the general public. In many academic and competitive exam contexts regarding 'Private' vs 'Public' (Government-run) banking, LIC is categorized as a non-bank financial institution providing private-sector style credit services compared to government-funded development agencies like HUDCO.
3. **IDBI (Industrial Development Bank of India):** Originally a development bank established by the Government of India, it has since transitioned into a full-service commercial bank. It is primarily categorized as a public sector/commercial bank.
4. **Co-operative banks:** These are member-owned financial institutions. While they are 'private' in terms of ownership by members, they are categorized as a specific 'Co-operative' sector of banking, distinct from 'Private Housing Finance Agencies' (which usually refers to HFCs or non-banking financial companies).
Comparing the options, LIC acts as a major non-bank provider of housing finance. However, it is important to note that in strict legal terms, LIC is a statutory body. But in the context of this specific exam's classification of 'Private' (meaning non-government development bank/non-commercial bank), LIC is the most fitting answer among the choices provided.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Horizontal distance measurement can be done by using
A)
Chaining
B)
Tachymetry
C)
Theodolite survey
D)
Compass survey
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. Horizontal distance measurement is the process of determining the linear distance between two points on a horizontal plane. 2. Chaining (or Chain Surveying) is the most fundamental method of linear measurement where a chain or tape is used to measure the direct horizontal distance between two points. 3. Tachymetry (Option b) is a method of optical surveying used to find both horizontal and vertical distances using a tachymeter, but it is an indirect method based on trigonometry and stadia constants. 4. Theodolite survey (Option c) is primarily used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles; while distances can be calculated using these angles, the instrument itself measures angles, not distance. 5. Compass survey (Option d) is used to determine the direction (bearing) of lines and is primarily used for traversing, not for direct distance measurement. Therefore, chaining is the primary and direct method for horizontal distance measurement.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which of the following is not a region of the sparse population?
A)
Polar Region
B)
The Atacama
C)
South-East Asia
D)
Equatorial Region
The question asks to identify which region is NOT characterized by a sparse population.
1. **Polar Regions (Option a):** These are areas of extreme cold and ice (e.g., Antarctica, Arctic), making them nearly uninhabitable and thus sparsely populated.
2. **The Atacama (Option b):** Located in Chile, the Atacama is one of the driest non-polar places on Earth. Extreme aridity prevents large-scale human settlement, making it a sparsely populated region.
3. **Equatorial Region (Option d):** While some parts are populated, the dense tropical rainforests (like the Amazon or Congo basins) often create harsh living conditions, high humidity, and disease vectors, leading to overall sparse population densities compared to temperate zones.
4. **South-East Asia (Option c):** This region (including countries like Indonesia, Vietnam, Thailand, and the Philippines) is one of the most densely populated areas in the world due to fertile volcanic soils, favorable climates for wet-rice cultivation, and extensive coastlines.
Therefore, South-East Asia is a region of dense population, not sparse population.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
Which is the most polluted city of north east?
A)
Guwahati
B)
Aizawl
C)
Imphal
D)
Kohima
Among the cities listed in the North East region of India, Guwahati (Assam) consistently records the highest levels of air pollution. This is primarily due to its status as the largest urban center and commercial hub of the region, leading to higher vehicular density, industrial emissions, and construction activities. In contrast, cities like Aizawl, Imphal, and Kohima are smaller in population and industrial scale, and their hilly topography often allows for better dispersion of pollutants compared to the valley-based urban sprawl of Guwahati. Data from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and various Air Quality Index (AQI) monitors frequently place Guwahati as the most polluted city in the North East, particularly during the winter months when temperature inversion traps pollutants near the ground.
AD (Town Planning) • 2023 • Technical Paper-II
According to the Geological survey, water with less than 1000 ml/litre of total dissolved solids is
A)
Brine water
B)
Freshwater
C)
Slightly saline
D)
Moderately saline
The classification of water based on Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) is a standard geological and hydrological practice. While there are slight variations between different agencies, the general classification used by geological surveys (such as the USGS) is as follows:
1. Freshwater: TDS < 1,000 mg/L (or ppm).
2. Brackish/Slightly Saline: TDS between 1,000 and 10,000 mg/L.
3. Saline: TDS between 10,000 and 35,000 mg/L.
4. Brine: TDS > 35,000 mg/L.
Note: The question mentions '1000 ml/litre', which is a typographical error in the exam paper; it should be '1000 mg/litre' (milligrams per litre). Based on the numerical value of 1000, water below this threshold is categorized as freshwater.
- Option (a) Brine water is highly concentrated salt water (usually > 35,000 mg/L).
- Option (c) and (d) refer to brackish water, which exceeds the 1,000 mg/L limit.