← AD (Town Planning)
Past Questions — 2023
Which of the following is not true?
A)
Development generally improves the health system, while better health increases productivity, social cohesion, and economic welfare.
B)
Life expectancy is probably the best single indicator of national health levels.
C)
Life expectancy in Africa increased steadily from 1994 to 2003 due to better health care.
D)
There are growing inequalities in investment in health worldwide.
Step-by-step analysis of the options:
1. Option (a) describes the symbiotic relationship between development and health. It is a widely accepted principle in public health and economics that development provides the infrastructure for health systems, and a healthy population is more productive, which in turn fuels further development. This statement is true.
2. Option (b) refers to life expectancy. In global health metrics, life expectancy at birth is considered one of the most comprehensive single indicators of a population's overall health status, as it reflects the cumulative effect of mortality, nutrition, and healthcare quality. This statement is true.
3. Option (c) claims that life expectancy in Africa increased steadily from 1994 to 2003. This is historically incorrect. During this specific period, Sub-Saharan Africa experienced a severe decline or stagnation in life expectancy primarily due to the HIV/AIDS epidemic, which offset gains made in other areas of healthcare. The crisis peaked in the late 1990s and early 2000s before antiretroviral therapies became widely available. Therefore, this statement is NOT true.
4. Option (d) addresses health investment. Global health reports consistently show a widening gap in health spending and resource allocation between high-income countries and low-income countries, as well as within countries (urban vs. rural). This statement is true.
Since the question asks for the statement that is NOT true, option (c) is the correct answer.
The state of India which has the lowest percentage of population below poverty line:
A)
Punjab
B)
Rajasthan
C)
Tamil Nadu
D)
Uttar Pradesh
To determine the state with the lowest percentage of population below the poverty line (BPL), we look at poverty indices and reports from NITI Aayog and the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
1. **Punjab**: Historically and statistically, Punjab has one of the lowest poverty rates in India due to the success of the Green Revolution, high agricultural productivity, and strong rural income levels. It consistently ranks among the states with the lowest BPL percentages.
2. **Tamil Nadu**: While Tamil Nadu has made significant strides in poverty reduction through social welfare schemes and industrialization, its poverty percentage generally remains slightly higher than that of Punjab.
3. **Rajasthan**: This state faces geographical challenges (desertification) and has historically had a higher percentage of population below the poverty line compared to Punjab and Tamil Nadu.
4. **Uttar Pradesh**: As one of the most populous states with a high dependence on subsistence agriculture and lower per capita income, Uttar Pradesh typically has one of the highest percentages of BPL population in India.
Therefore, among the given options, Punjab is the state with the lowest percentage of population below the poverty line.
The slogan of which five-year plan of India is “Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth’?
A)
12th five-year plan
B)
11th five-year plan
C)
10th five-year plan
D)
9th five-year plan
The 12th Five-Year Plan (2012–2017) was the last five-year plan implemented in India before the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog. Its primary objective and slogan was 'Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth'.
Breakdown of the slogan:
1. Faster: Aimed at increasing the GDP growth rate to maintain economic momentum.
2. More Inclusive: Focused on reducing poverty and inequality, ensuring that the benefits of growth reached the marginalized sections of society.
3. Sustainable: Emphasized environmental protection and the sustainable use of natural resources for future generations.
Analysis of other options:
- 11th Five-Year Plan (2007–2012): Its primary focus was 'Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth'.
- 10th Five-Year Plan (2002–2007): Focused on doubling per capita income and reducing poverty.
- 9th Five-Year Plan (1997–2002): Focused on 'Growth with Social Justice and Equity'.
If GDP for Barbados is $260 million in 2005 and its population is 260,000, GDP per capita is
A)
1000 $
B)
260$
C)
500$
D)
None of these
To calculate the GDP per capita, we use the following economic formula:
GDP per capita = Total GDP / Total Population
Given data:
1. Total GDP = $260 million = $260,000,000
2. Total Population = 260,000
Calculation:
GDP per capita = 260,000,000 / 260,000
GDP per capita = 26,000 / 26
GDP per capita = 1,000
Therefore, the GDP per capita for Barbados is $1,000.
Comparing this result to the options:
- Option (a) 1000 $ is correct.
- Option (b) 260$ is incorrect as it fails to account for the 'million' multiplier in the GDP.
- Option (c) 500$ is mathematically incorrect based on the provided figures.
What is the characteristic of CBD?
A)
High Density
B)
High Land Value
C)
Shortage of Parking Space
D)
All of these
The Central Business District (CBD) is the commercial and business center of a city. Its characteristics are driven by the principle of 'bid-rent theory,' where land use is determined by the ability to pay for accessibility.
1. High Land Value: Because the CBD is the most accessible point in the city, demand for land is extremely high, leading to the highest land values and rents in the urban area.
2. High Density: To maximize the return on expensive land, developers build vertically. This results in high-density development characterized by skyscrapers and high-rise commercial buildings.
3. Shortage of Parking Space: Due to the high density of buildings and the massive influx of commuters, workers, and shoppers, the demand for parking far exceeds the available physical space, leading to chronic parking shortages.
Since all three options (a, b, and c) are defining characteristics of a CBD, the correct answer is 'All of these'.
A Pictorial chart is made for the construction project in item wise with the duration of time is known as
A)
Duration chart
B)
Bar Chart
C)
Time Chart
D)
Project Chart
In project management, a Bar Chart (specifically the Gantt Chart) is a pictorial representation used to schedule project activities. It lists the project items (tasks) on the vertical axis and the time scale on the horizontal axis. Each activity is represented by a horizontal bar; the length of the bar corresponds to the duration of the activity, and its position indicates the start and finish dates.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Duration chart: This is a general term and not a standard technical name for a specific pictorial scheduling tool.
- c. Time chart: While it involves time, 'Time Chart' is too generic and does not specifically refer to the item-wise pictorial bar representation used in construction planning.
- d. Project chart: This is a broad term that could refer to any chart related to a project (like an organizational chart or a PERT chart), whereas the description specifically matches the definition of a Bar Chart.
A PERT network has 9 activities on its critical path. The standard deviation of each activity on the critical path is 3. The standard deviation of the critical path is
A)
3
B)
9
C)
27
D)
81
In PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique), the total variance of a path is the sum of the variances of the individual activities on that path.
1. **Given Data**:
- Number of activities on the critical path (n) = 9
- Standard deviation of each activity (σ_i) = 3
2. **Calculate Variance of each activity**:
Variance (σ²) is the square of the standard deviation.
σ_i² = 3² = 9
3. **Calculate Total Variance of the Critical Path (σ_path²)**:
σ_path² = Σ (σ_i²)
Since there are 9 activities with the same variance:
σ_path² = 9 × 9 = 81
4. **Calculate Standard Deviation of the Critical Path (σ_path)**:
The standard deviation is the square root of the total variance.
σ_path = √81 = 9
Therefore, the standard deviation of the critical path is 9.
- Option (a) is incorrect because it is the standard deviation of a single activity.
- Option (c) is incorrect as it results from multiplying the number of activities by the standard deviation (9 * 3), which is mathematically incorrect for independent random variables.
- Option (d) is incorrect because it is the total variance, not the standard deviation.
Which one of the following does have some limitation when applied to detailed engineering design work during early stages of project?
A)
CPM
B)
PERT
C)
Dummy Activity
D)
Estimate
To determine the correct answer, we must analyze the characteristics of the two primary project management techniques: CPM (Critical Path Method) and PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique).
1. **CPM (Critical Path Method):** CPM is a deterministic model. It assumes that the time required to complete each activity is known with certainty based on previous experience. Because it relies on fixed time estimates, it is highly effective for repetitive, well-defined projects (like construction). However, during the 'early stages' of detailed engineering design work, there is often high uncertainty and a lack of historical data for specific tasks. Applying a deterministic model (CPM) to an uncertain environment is a significant limitation.
2. **PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique):** PERT is a probabilistic model. It uses three time estimates (Optimistic, Most Likely, and Pessimistic) to account for uncertainty. This makes PERT specifically designed for R&D and early-stage engineering projects where activity durations are not known with certainty.
3. **Dummy Activity:** This is a logical tool used in AOA (Activity-on-Arrow) networks to show dependencies; it is not a project management methodology and does not have 'limitations' regarding the stage of design in the same context as CPM/PERT.
4. **Estimate:** An estimate is a general term for predicting costs or time; it is a component of planning, not a scheduling system with systemic limitations in the context of CPM vs PERT.
Conclusion: Since detailed engineering design in early stages involves high uncertainty, the deterministic nature of CPM makes it limited compared to the probabilistic nature of PERT.
The process of forecasting or approximating the time and cost of completing project deliverables is called
A)
Budgeting
B)
Estimating
C)
Planning
D)
None of these
In Project Management, 'Estimating' is the specific process of forecasting or approximating the time, cost, and resources required to complete project deliverables. It involves using techniques such as Analogous Estimating, Parametric Estimating, or Three-Point Estimating to predict future requirements based on available data.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Budgeting: This is the process of allocating the estimated costs to specific time periods or work packages to create a cost baseline. Budgeting happens *after* estimating.
- c. Planning: This is a broad, overarching phase that encompasses estimating, budgeting, scheduling, and risk management. While estimating is part of planning, 'planning' itself is not the specific act of forecasting time and cost.
- d. None of these: Incorrect, as 'Estimating' accurately describes the process defined in the question.
The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of succeeding activities is known as
A)
Duration
B)
Total Float
C)
Free Float
D)
Interfering Float
In project management (specifically in CPM/PERT networks), 'Float' or 'Slack' refers to the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project or subsequent activities.
1. **Free Float (FF):** This is defined as the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start (ES) of any immediate successor activity. The formula is: FF = ES (next activity) - EF (current activity). This matches the definition provided in the question.
2. **Total Float (TF):** This is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the overall project completion date. Total float is generally larger than or equal to free float.
3. **Interfering Float (IF):** This is the difference between Total Float and Free Float. It is the part of the total float that, if used, will delay the start of succeeding activities but not the project completion date.
4. **Duration:** This is simply the total time required to complete an activity, not a measure of delay flexibility.
Therefore, since the question specifically mentions not affecting the 'start of succeeding activities', the correct term is Free Float.
Formation of NITI AYOG was announced in
A)
15 August 2018
B)
15 August 2014
C)
15 August 2016
D)
26 January 2016
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established to replace the Planning Commission of India. 2. The formation of NITI Aayog was officially announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day speech on 15 August 2014. 3. While the announcement was made on 15 August 2014, the formal government resolution to establish the body was passed on 1 January 2015. 4. Comparing this to the options provided: Option (a) 2018, (c) 2016, and (d) 2016 are chronologically incorrect as the announcement happened in 2014. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Who among the following had propounded the concept of ‘Trusteeship’?
A)
M.N Roy
B)
Aurobindo Ghosh
C)
GK Gokhale
D)
Mahatma Gandhi
The concept of 'Trusteeship' was propounded by Mahatma Gandhi. It is a socio-economic philosophy that suggests wealthy individuals should act as 'trustees' of their wealth for the benefit of the common people, rather than viewing themselves as sole owners. Gandhi believed that this approach would resolve class conflict and achieve social justice without the need for violent revolution or forced redistribution of wealth.
Why other options are incorrect:
- M.N. Roy: He was a prominent figure in the Communist movement and later the founder of Radical Humanism, focusing on scientific rationalism and atheism.
- Aurobindo Ghosh: He was a spiritual philosopher and nationalist known for his theories on integral yoga and spiritual evolution.
- GK Gokhale: He was a moderate leader of the Indian National Congress who focused on constitutional reforms and administrative improvements through legal means.
As per National Health Mission, how many Primary Health Centre (PHC) is dedicated for 20000 tribal population?
A)
4
B)
3
C)
2
D)
1
Under the guidelines of the National Health Mission (NHM) and the Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS), the norms for the establishment of Primary Health Centres (PHCs) are based on population density and terrain. For plain areas, a PHC is typically established for every 30,000 people. However, for hilly, tribal, or difficult terrain areas, the population norm is reduced to ensure better accessibility to healthcare. In these tribal/hilly areas, one PHC is dedicated to every 20,000 people. Therefore, for a tribal population of 20,000, 1 PHC is required.
Any family who on account of acquisition of land must be relocated and resettled from the affected area to the resettlement area is called
A)
Displaced family
B)
Affected Family
C)
Beneficiary
D)
All of these
In the context of land acquisition, rehabilitation, and resettlement (R&R) laws (such as the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013), a distinction is made between 'Affected Families' and 'Displaced Families'.
1. **Displaced Family**: This refers specifically to a family that has to be relocated and resettled from the affected area to a resettlement area because their residence or place of business is being acquired. The key element here is the physical movement (relocation) from one area to another.
2. **Affected Family**: This is a broader term. It includes not only those who are displaced but also those who lose their primary source of livelihood (e.g., agricultural laborers, tenants, or artisans) even if they are not physically relocated from their homes.
3. **Beneficiary**: This is a general term for anyone receiving a benefit or compensation, but it is not the legal definition for a family requiring relocation.
Since the question specifically mentions the requirement to be 'relocated and resettled from the affected area to the resettlement area', the correct technical term is 'Displaced family'.
Which of the following statement is defining the Total Fertility Rate (TFR).
A)
total number of children born in a country in a given year divided by labor force.
B)
number of children born to average woman during her reproductive years.
C)
number of births in a country divided by total population in a given year.
D)
number of women age 15-45 in a country divided by total population.
Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is a demographic metric that represents the average number of children a woman would have if she were to pass through her childbearing years (typically defined as ages 15–44 or 15–49) experiencing the current age-specific fertility rates.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because the labor force is not used as a denominator for fertility rates; fertility is measured relative to the female population of reproductive age.
- Option (b) is correct as it accurately describes the conceptual definition of TFR: the average number of children born to a woman over her lifetime/reproductive span.
- Option (c) describes the 'Crude Birth Rate' (CBR), which is the total number of live births per 1,000 people in a population per year.
- Option (d) describes a population proportion or demographic structure ratio, not a fertility rate.
The simplest explanation based on Lewis s model for rural-urban migration is
A)
that people migrate when urban wages exceed rural wages.
B)
a higher expected income in urban areas.
C)
better infrastructure in urban areas.
D)
the availability of labour-intensive jobs in urban areas.
The Lewis Model (also known as the Dual Sector Model), developed by Sir Arthur Lewis, describes the transition of a developing economy from a traditional agricultural sector to a modern industrial sector.
1. **Core Premise**: The model assumes a 'dual economy' consisting of a rural subsistence sector (with surplus labor and zero or very low marginal productivity) and an urban industrial sector.
2. **The Driver of Migration**: The primary catalyst for migration in this model is the wage differential. Lewis posits that workers will migrate from the rural sector to the urban sector as long as the urban industrial wage is higher than the rural subsistence wage (typically by a small premium to encourage the move).
3. **Mechanism**: Because there is 'surplus labor' in the rural areas, workers can move to the city without reducing agricultural output. The industrial sector continues to grow by hiring this labor at a constant wage until the surplus labor is exhausted.
Why other options are incorrect:
- **Option b**: While 'expected income' is a general driver of migration (often associated with the Harris-Todaro model), the Lewis model specifically focuses on the actual wage gap between the two sectors.
- **Option c**: Infrastructure is a 'pull factor' in general urban geography, but it is not the theoretical basis of the Lewis economic model.
- **Option d**: While labor-intensive jobs provide the demand for workers, the *explanation for the migration itself* in the Lewis model is the wage incentive, not merely the existence of the jobs.
The Power and function of the panchayats are enlisted in of the constitution.
A)
10th schedule
B)
11th schedule
C)
12th schedule
D)
13th schedule
The powers and functions of the Panchayats are detailed in the 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This schedule was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which gave constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). The 11th Schedule contains 29 functional items (such as agriculture, land improvement, minor irrigation, and poverty alleviation) that may be devolved by the State Governments to the Panchayats.
Analysis of other options:
- 10th Schedule: Deals with the 'Anti-Defection Law' (added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985).
- 12th Schedule: Deals with the powers and functions of Municipalities (added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992).
- 13th Schedule: There is no 13th Schedule in the Indian Constitution; it currently contains 12 schedules.
Which of the following state is the largest producer of bamboo in India?
A)
Haryana
B)
Mizoram
C)
Telangana
D)
Himachal Pradesh
Bamboo is primarily grown in the North-Eastern states of India due to the favorable tropical climate and high rainfall. Among the given options, Mizoram is a leading producer of bamboo. In the broader context of India, the North-Eastern region (including states like Assam, Mizoram, and Nagaland) accounts for the vast majority of India's bamboo resources.
Analysis of options:
- Haryana: Primarily an agricultural state focusing on wheat and paddy; not a major bamboo producer.
- Mizoram: Part of the 'Bamboo Belt' of India with extensive natural bamboo forests.
- Telangana: While it produces some bamboo, its output is significantly lower than that of the North-Eastern states.
- Himachal Pradesh: Focuses more on temperate fruits and timber; not a primary producer of bamboo compared to the North-East.
The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism was written by
A)
Adam Smith
B)
Max Weber
C)
Joseph Schumpeter
D)
William Baumol
The book 'The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism' (originally published in German as 'Die protestantische Ethik und der Geist des Kapitalismus' in 1905) was written by the German sociologist and philosopher Max Weber. In this seminal work, Weber argues that the values of the Protestant Reformation—specifically Calvinism—emphasized hard work, frugality, and the pursuit of worldly success as a sign of divine election, which in turn provided the cultural and psychological framework necessary for the rise of modern industrial capitalism.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Adam Smith: Known as the father of modern economics, he wrote 'The Wealth of Nations' (1776), which focuses on the 'invisible hand' and free markets.
- Joseph Schumpeter: A famous economist known for his theory of 'creative destruction' and his work 'Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy'.
- William Baumol: A contemporary economist known for his work on productivity and the 'Baumol effect' (cost disease).
Which of the following is not a capital good?
A)
Plant and Equipment
B)
Inventories
C)
Building
D)
Consumer Goods
In economics, capital goods are man-made assets used in the production of other goods or services. They are characterized by their durability and their role in increasing the productive capacity of an economy.
1. **Plant and Equipment (Option a):** These are classic examples of capital goods as they are used directly in the manufacturing process to create final products.
2. **Inventories (Option b):** In national accounting and economics, inventories (raw materials, work-in-progress, and finished goods) are treated as part of investment and are categorized as capital goods because they represent a stock of value used to facilitate future production or sales.
3. **Building (Option c):** Commercial or industrial buildings (factories, warehouses) are fixed capital assets used to house production activities.
4. **Consumer Goods (Option d):** These are final goods intended for direct consumption by the end-user to satisfy personal wants (e.g., food, clothing, personal electronics). They are not used to produce other goods; therefore, they are the opposite of capital goods.
If GDP for Maldives is $435 million in 2002 and the GDP per capita is $1576.087, the population of the country must be
A)
276000
B)
157600
C)
596000
D)
None of these
To find the population of the country, we use the standard economic formula for GDP per capita:
GDP per capita = Total GDP / Total Population
Rearranging the formula to solve for Population:
Population = Total GDP / GDP per capita
Given values:
Total GDP = $435 million = $435,000,000
GDP per capita = $1,576.087
Calculation:
Population = 435,000,000 / 1,576.087
Population ≈ 276,000.001
Rounding to the nearest whole number, the population is 276,000.
Comparing this result to the options:
- Option (a) 276,000 matches our calculation.
- Option (b) 157,600 is incorrect.
- Option (c) 596,000 is incorrect.
- Option (d) is incorrect because a matching option exists.
The ‘Demographic Dividend’ is
A)
Working Population of 15 to 59 Years
B)
Working Population of 14 to 50 Years
C)
Working Population above 60 Years
D)
Working Population below 40 Years
The 'Demographic Dividend' refers to the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population's age structure, specifically when the share of the working-age population (15 to 64 years) is larger than the non-working-age share of the population (dependents). In many academic and competitive exam contexts, the working-age bracket is broadly defined as 15 to 59 or 15 to 64 years.
Step-by-step analysis:
1. Option (a) aligns with the standard demographic definition of the working-age population (starting at 15).
2. Option (b) is incorrect because the working age typically starts at 15, not 14, and extends beyond 50.
3. Option (c) refers to the elderly/retired population, which increases the dependency ratio rather than providing a dividend.
4. Option (d) is too restrictive, as it excludes a significant portion of the productive workforce (those aged 40-64).
Therefore, option (a) is the most accurate representation of the working-age population contributing to the demographic dividend.
Which of the following is not a natural public monopoly?
A)
mobile phone
B)
electricity
C)
water supply
D)
postal service
A 'Natural Monopoly' occurs when a single firm can supply a service to an entire market at a lower cost than two or more firms could. This typically happens in industries with extremely high fixed infrastructure costs (economies of scale) where duplicating the network would be inefficient and wasteful.
1. Electricity (Option b) and Water Supply (Option c) are classic examples of natural monopolies because it would be prohibitively expensive and physically impractical to have multiple sets of power lines or water pipes from different companies running to every single house.
2. Postal Service (Option d) is traditionally viewed as a natural monopoly (or a legal monopoly) because the infrastructure required to deliver a single letter to every address in a country is most efficiently managed by one entity.
3. Mobile Phone (Option a) is NOT a natural monopoly. While it requires infrastructure (cell towers), the market supports multiple competing providers (e.g., Airtel, Jio, Vodafone) who can share spectrum or build overlapping networks without the total system collapsing or becoming wildly inefficient. In fact, the mobile industry is characterized by intense competition and low barriers to entry compared to laying city-wide water mains.
Who Propounded the Idea of ‘Economy of Permanence’?
A)
M.N Roy
B)
J.C Kumarappa
C)
Narayan Agarwal
D)
None of these
The 'Economy of Permanence' is a socio-economic philosophy propounded by J.C. Kumarappa (Jamaluddin Kumarappa), a Gandhian economist. In his seminal work, 'The Economy of Permanence', he argued against the modern industrial economy's focus on consumption and waste. He advocated for a sustainable, decentralized economy based on the principles of nature, where production is geared toward fulfilling basic needs using local resources, thereby ensuring long-term ecological and social stability.
Analysis of other options:
- M.N. Roy was a prominent political theorist and founder of the Radical Humanist movement, focusing more on political philosophy and Marxism than sustainable economic models.
- Narayan Agarwal is not associated with this specific economic theory.
- Therefore, option (b) is the only correct answer.
The Process of implementing the objective into actual Practice becomes the executive.
A)
Functions of workers
B)
Function of management
C)
Function of unions
D)
Labourers
The question describes the process of translating objectives (planning) into actual practice (execution/implementation). In organizational theory, this is the core definition of the 'Executive Function' of management. Management is responsible for planning, organizing, directing, and controlling resources to ensure that the goals of the organization are achieved.
1. Why 'Function of management' is correct: Management acts as the bridge between the strategic goals (objectives) and the operational reality (practice). The 'executive' aspect of management involves decision-making and the implementation of plans.
2. Why 'Functions of workers' is incorrect: Workers execute specific tasks assigned to them, but they do not implement the overarching organizational objectives into practice; they follow the implementation plan created by management.
3. Why 'Function of unions' is incorrect: Trade unions focus on collective bargaining, worker rights, and welfare, not the executive implementation of organizational objectives.
4. Why 'Labourers' is incorrect: Labourers are the workforce that performs the manual or technical work; they are the tools of execution, not the process of 'executive' implementation itself.