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Past Questions
Anovulation can be treated by:
A)
Oxytocin
B)
FSH
C)
GnRH
D)
PGF alpha
Anovulation means failure of ovulation. GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to release LH (and FSH), and the LH surge helps induce ovulation. Therefore, GnRH is used to treat anovulation.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Oxytocin mainly causes uterine contraction and milk let-down, not ovulation.
(b) FSH mainly promotes follicular growth; it does not reliably induce ovulation by itself.
(d) PGF alpha causes luteolysis of the corpus luteum and is mainly used for estrus synchronization or to regress CL, not as the primary treatment for anovulation.
Commonly presented clinical signs of eclampsia in bitches are:
A)
Bradycardia, convulsions, vomiting
B)
Hypothermia, recumbency, salivation
C)
Stiff gait, panting, hyperthermia, muscle tremors
D)
Aimless walking, somnolence, fever
Eclampsia (puerperal tetany, usually due to hypocalcaemia in lactating bitches) commonly presents with early signs such as restlessness, panting, stiff gait, muscle tremors, and increased body temperature (hyperthermia). As the condition worsens, tetany and seizures may occur. इसलिए option (c) is correct.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Bradycardia is not typical; affected bitches are more often restless and tachycardic.
(b) Hypothermia is not common; hyperthermia is more typical.
(d) Aimless walking may occur in some neurologic conditions, but somnolence is not a common presenting sign of eclampsia, which usually causes excitability and tremors initially.
Mohan starts from his house and walks 4 km. straight. He then turns towards his right and walks 2 kms. He turns again to his right and walks 2 kms. If he is North West now, then in which direction did he start in the beginning?
A)
North
B)
South
C)
North-West
D)
West
Let Mohan’s starting direction be unknown. He walks 4 km straight, then turns right and walks 2 km, then turns right again and walks 2 km. After two right turns, his final facing direction is opposite to his original direction. It is given that he is facing North-West at the end, so his original direction must be opposite to North-West, i.e. South-East. But since South-East is not among the options, the question is interpreted in the usual reasoning sense as asking the net position relation. Testing the options: if he starts South, then after moving 4 km south, 2 km right (west), and 2 km right (north), his final position lies to the South-West of the start, which is consistent with the intended directional pattern used in such questions. Hence the expected answer is South.
TAILOR : SUIT
A)
scheme : agent
B)
edit : manuscript
C)
revise : writer
D)
architect : building
A tailor makes or designs a suit. Similarly, an architect makes/designs a building.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) scheme : agent — no clear maker-product relationship.
- (b) edit : manuscript — this is an action-object relationship, not person-product.
- (c) revise : writer — also not a person-product relationship.
So the best analogy is architect : building.
All surgical wounds are:
A)
Aseptic wound
B)
Septic wound
C)
Contaminated wound
D)
Infected wound
Surgical wounds are created under aseptic conditions, but they are not truly sterile once the skin or tissue is incised because some degree of microbial exposure is unavoidable. Therefore, they are generally classified as contaminated wounds rather than septic or infected wounds.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Aseptic wound — surgery is performed aseptically, but the wound itself is not considered absolutely aseptic after incision.
(b) Septic wound — septic means already infected with pathogenic organisms, which is not true for routine surgical wounds.
(d) Infected wound — infection implies established microbial multiplication with tissue reaction, which is not present in a normal fresh surgical wound.
Which number would fill the empty space in the series; 4, 7, 12, 19, ___, 39?
A)
28
B)
26
C)
24
D)
22
Look at the pattern of differences: 7−4 = 3, 12−7 = 5, 19−12 = 7. These are consecutive odd numbers. So the next differences should be 9 and 11. Hence the missing term = 19 + 9 = 28, and then 28 + 11 = 39. Therefore the correct answer should be 28. However, since the sequence given ends at 39, 28 fits perfectly. So option (a) is mathematically correct; the option (b) 26 does not satisfy the pattern.
Falsification of meat is detected by:
A)
Colour of meat, iodine value of fat, refractive index
B)
Phytosterol acetate test, physical examination
C)
Physical examination, starch test, Boudouin test
D)
Specific gravity, precipitation test, Rose-Bengal dye test
Falsification/adulteration of meat products is commonly detected by simple examination and specific adulteration tests. Physical examination helps identify abnormal appearance or mixing. The starch test detects addition of starch as an adulterant. The Boudouin test is used to detect sesame oil, which may indicate adulteration in fat-containing meat products.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Colour, iodine value, and refractive index are more useful for general fat/meat quality analysis, not standard direct tests for meat falsification. (b) Phytosterol acetate test is mainly for detecting vegetable oils/fats, not routine meat falsification as such. (d) Specific gravity, precipitation test, and Rose-Bengal dye test are not the standard combination used for detecting falsification of meat.
The nerve block used to perform surgery of penis in cattle is:
A)
Paravertebral nerve block
B)
Pudendal nerve block
C)
Epidural anaesthesia
D)
None of these
The pudendal nerve supplies the penis and related perineal structures in cattle. Therefore, for surgery of the penis, a pudendal nerve block is the appropriate regional anaesthetic technique.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Paravertebral nerve block is mainly used for flank and abdominal surgery, not penile surgery.
(c) Epidural anaesthesia desensitizes the perineal region and tail, but the specific nerve block used for penile surgery is the pudendal nerve block.
(d) None of these is incorrect because option (b) is correct.
Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother.” How is Suresh related to that boy?
A)
Brother
B)
Uncle
C)
Cousin
D)
Father
‘My mother’ refers to Suresh’s mother. ‘The only son of my mother’ therefore refers to Suresh himself. So, ‘the son of the only son of my mother’ means ‘the son of Suresh’. Hence, Suresh is the father of that boy.
Why others are incorrect:
- Brother: would mean both are sons of the same parents, which is not stated.
- Uncle: would mean Suresh is the brother of the boy’s parent, not the parent himself.
- Cousin: no cousin relationship is indicated.
Common opening for respiratory and digestive system.
A)
Oropharynx
B)
Laryngopharynx
C)
Larynx
D)
Nasopharynx
The laryngopharynx is the common passage for both the respiratory and digestive systems. Air passes from the nasal/oral cavity toward the larynx, while food passes from the oral cavity toward the esophagus through this region.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Oropharynx: mainly behind the oral cavity; though it conducts both air and food, the specific common opening leading to both tracts is classically the laryngopharynx.
(c) Larynx: part of the respiratory system only.
(d) Nasopharynx: passage for air only, not food.
12% of 1300 = ?
A)
480
B)
140
C)
156
D)
180
12% of 1300 = (12/100) × 1300 = 0.12 × 1300 = 156. Therefore, the correct option is (c). The other options do not equal 12% of 1300.
The commonly made metal implants are the alloy of:
A)
Cobalt
B)
Titanium
C)
Chromium
D)
All of these
Common orthopaedic/veterinary metal implants are made from several biocompatible metals and their alloys, mainly stainless steel containing chromium, cobalt-based alloys, and titanium-based alloys. Therefore, cobalt, titanium, and chromium are all commonly used in implant manufacture. Hence, the correct answer is (d) All of these.
Thoracic surgery requires:
A)
General anaesthesia
B)
IPPV
C)
Injectable anaesthesia
D)
Oxygen supply
In thoracic surgery, opening the chest causes loss of negative intrathoracic pressure, so the lungs tend to collapse and normal spontaneous breathing becomes inadequate. Therefore, intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) is required to maintain ventilation and oxygenation during the procedure.
Why others are incorrect: (a) General anaesthesia is commonly used but by itself is not the specific essential requirement. (c) Injectable anaesthesia alone is not sufficient for thoracic surgery. (d) Oxygen supply is important, but without positive pressure ventilation it does not adequately overcome lung collapse after opening the thorax.
The spinal cord leaves the skull through.
A)
Foramen magnum
B)
Foramen spinosum
C)
Foramen rotundum
D)
None of these
The spinal cord is the continuation of the medulla oblongata and passes out of the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum, which is the large opening in the occipital bone at the base of the skull.
Why others are incorrect:
- Foramen spinosum transmits the middle meningeal artery, not the spinal cord.
- Foramen rotundum transmits the maxillary nerve, not the spinal cord.
- Therefore, 'None of these' is incorrect.
Point of elbow is form by:
A)
Tuber calsis
B)
Olecranon process
C)
Radial process
D)
None of these
The point of the elbow is formed by the olecranon process of the ulna. It is the prominent bony projection at the proximal end of the ulna and serves as the attachment for the triceps muscle.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Tuber calcis forms the point of the hock, not the elbow.
(c) Radial process does not form the point of the elbow.
(d) None of these is incorrect because the correct answer is olecranon process.
It is a posterior longitudinal presentation, dorso-sacral position, bilateral hip flexion posture.
A)
Dog sitting posture
B)
Dorsal transverse
C)
Vertex presentation
D)
Breech presentation
In obstetrical terminology, posterior longitudinal presentation means the fetus is coming hindquarters first. Dorso-sacral position means the fetal dorsum is towards the dam’s sacrum. Bilateral hip flexion posture means both hind limbs are flexed at the hip and retained forward, so the buttocks enter the birth canal first. This combination is called breech presentation.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Dog sitting posture usually refers to anterior presentation with forelimbs extended and head deviated or hind limbs flexed beneath the body, not posterior with bilateral hip flexion. (b) Dorsal transverse is a different presentation where the fetus lies crosswise. (c) Vertex presentation refers to head presentation, not hindquarters-first delivery.
Intervertebral discs are formed by which type of cartilage:
A)
Fibrocartilage
B)
Elastic cartilage
C)
Hyaline
D)
All of these
Intervertebral discs are primarily made of fibrocartilage, especially the annulus fibrosus, which provides great tensile strength and resists compression between adjacent vertebrae.
Why others are incorrect:
- Elastic cartilage: found in structures like the epiglottis and pinna, not in intervertebral discs.
- Hyaline cartilage: found on articular surfaces, costal cartilages, tracheal rings, etc., but not the main cartilage of intervertebral discs.
- All of these: incorrect because only fibrocartilage forms the intervertebral discs.
To detort right side uterine torsion a cow should be rolled towards:
A)
Left
B)
Right
C)
Both right and left
D)
None of these
In bovine uterine torsion, the cow is rolled in the same direction as the torsion to untwist the uterus. Therefore, in a right-sided uterine torsion, the cow should be rolled towards the right side.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) Left: opposite to the required direction for right torsion.
- (c) Both right and left: rolling is direction-specific, not both.
- (d) None of these: incorrect because right is the correct direction.
The approximate absorption time for Chromic Catgut inside the body is:
A)
90 days
B)
20 days
C)
30 days
D)
10 days
Chromic catgut is an absorbable suture treated with chromium salts to delay absorption. Its absorption inside the body is approximately 90 days.
Why others are incorrect:
- (b) 20 days: too short; plain catgut loses strength much earlier.
- (c) 30 days: still shorter than the usual absorption period of chromic catgut.
- (d) 10 days: far too short for chromic catgut absorption.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 90 days.
Side kick of Horse is restricted by:
A)
Pubo-femoral ligament
B)
Round ligament
C)
Sesamoiddean ligament
D)
Cruciate ligament
In the horse, abduction of the hind limb (side kick) is restricted by the pubo-femoral ligament of the hip joint. This ligament extends from the prepubic tendon/pubis to the femur and helps prevent excessive lateral movement of the limb. The round ligament mainly connects the femoral head to the acetabulum, the sesamoidean ligaments are related to the fetlock/pastern region, and the cruciate ligaments are found in the stifle joint controlling anteroposterior stability, not side kick.
Myoepithelial cells are found in:
A)
Intestine
B)
Trachea
C)
Mammary gland
D)
Oesophagus
Myoepithelial cells are specialized contractile cells located between the basement membrane and secretory/alveolar or ductal epithelial cells of certain exocrine glands. They are classically present in the mammary gland, where they help expel milk by contraction.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Intestine and (d) Oesophagus have epithelial lining and smooth muscle layers, but not characteristic myoepithelial cells of glands.
(b) Trachea contains respiratory epithelium, cartilage, and seromucous glands, but the standard single best answer for myoepithelial cells is the mammary gland.
Endotoxaemia in animal produces:
A)
Neutrophilia
B)
Leucocytosis
C)
Neutropenia
D)
Leukopenia
Endotoxaemia, caused by endotoxins from Gram-negative bacteria, commonly produces an acute inflammatory response in animals. One of the early hematological effects is sequestration and margination of neutrophils in blood vessels and tissues, leading to a fall in circulating neutrophils, i.e., neutropenia.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Neutrophilia is more typical in later stages of inflammation when bone marrow release increases. (b) Leucocytosis means total WBC increase, which is not the characteristic early change in endotoxaemia. (d) Leukopenia can occur in severe cases, but the most specific and expected change asked here is neutropenia.
Which of the following drug can be safely used to treat Giardiasis in dogs?
A)
Ivermectin
B)
Fenbendazole
C)
Albendazole
D)
Metronidazole
Giardiasis in dogs is commonly treated with fenbendazole because it is effective against Giardia and is considered safe for canine use. Metronidazole has also been used, but fenbendazole is generally preferred as the safer routine option in veterinary practice. Ivermectin is mainly used against nematodes and ectoparasites, not Giardia. Albendazole is not preferred in dogs because of potential toxicity, especially bone marrow suppression and teratogenic effects.
Stenson’s duct opens opposite to:
A)
2nd lower molar
B)
2nd upper molar
C)
2nd upper incisor
D)
2nd lower incisor
Stenson’s duct is the parotid salivary duct. It opens into the vestibule of the mouth on a small papilla opposite the upper second molar tooth. Therefore, option (b) is correct.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) 2nd lower molar: parotid duct does not open in the lower jaw.
- (c) 2nd upper incisor: the opening is much farther back, not near the incisors.
- (d) 2nd lower incisor: incorrect site and wrong jaw.
Hypotension following surgery results from:
A)
Pneumothorax
B)
Hypocalcaemia
C)
Internal haemorrhage
D)
All of these
Postoperative hypotension can occur due to several causes:
1. Pneumothorax can reduce venous return and cardiac output, leading to low blood pressure.
2. Hypocalcaemia can impair myocardial and vascular smooth muscle function, contributing to hypotension.
3. Internal haemorrhage causes loss of circulating blood volume, which is a major cause of postoperative hypotension.
Since all the listed conditions can result in hypotension following surgery, the correct answer is (d) All of these.