Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
The curled toe paralysis in poultry is observed in deficiency of:
A)
Vitamin B6
B)
Vitamin B2
C)
Vitamin B1
D)
Vitamin B12
Curled toe paralysis in poultry is a classic sign of riboflavin deficiency, i.e., Vitamin B2 deficiency. Riboflavin is essential for normal nerve function; its deficiency causes degeneration of peripheral nerves, leading to the characteristic inward curling of toes and difficulty in walking.
Why others are incorrect: Vitamin B6 deficiency is more associated with nervous signs and poor growth, Vitamin B1 deficiency causes polyneuritis and star-gazing in birds, and Vitamin B12 deficiency mainly causes poor growth, anemia, and reduced hatchability rather than curled toe paralysis.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Abnormally increased appetite is:
A)
Hyperorexia
B)
Anorexia
C)
Polydipsia
D)
Polyphagia
Polyphagia means abnormally increased appetite or excessive eating. इसलिए सही उत्तर (d) है.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) Hyperorexia: increased appetite is sometimes used in a similar sense, but the standard clinical term commonly used for excessive hunger/appetite is polyphagia.
- (b) Anorexia: loss of appetite.
- (c) Polydipsia: excessive thirst, not appetite.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Uterus is susceptible to infection in which phase?
A)
Luteal phase
B)
Follicular phase
C)
Proestrus
D)
Estrus
The uterus is most susceptible to infection during the luteal phase because progesterone is dominant in this phase. Progesterone reduces uterine contractions, closes the cervix, and lowers local uterine defense mechanisms, which favors retention of pathogens and development of uterine infection. In contrast, during the follicular phase/estrus, estrogen predominates, the cervix is more open, uterine tone is higher, and resistance to infection is better. Therefore, options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for gustation?
A)
Glossopharyngeal
B)
Olfactory
C)
Trochlear
D)
None of these
Gustation means the sense of taste. The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) carries taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, so it is responsible for gustation among the given options.
Why others are incorrect:
- Olfactory nerve: responsible for smell, not taste.
- Trochlear nerve: supplies the superior oblique muscle of the eye; it is a motor nerve.
- None of these: incorrect because glossopharyngeal is the correct option.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Most of the umbilical hernias can be primarily closed with:
A)
Horizontal mattress suture
B)
Simple interrupted suture
C)
Tension relieving suture patterns
D)
All of these
Most umbilical hernias, especially small and uncomplicated ones, are primarily closed by apposing the hernial ring with simple interrupted sutures. This pattern provides secure closure, allows accurate tissue alignment, and if one knot fails, the whole repair does not fail. Horizontal mattress and other tension-relieving patterns are mainly chosen when the defect is under tension or the opening is larger, so they are not the usual primary choice for most cases. Therefore, option (b) is correct, while (a) and (c) are situation-specific, making (d) incorrect.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Ballottement is nothing but:
A)
Palpation
B)
Percussion
C)
Combination of the above two (a) & (b)
D)
None of these
Ballottement is a clinical examination method in which a sharp push is given to a body part or cavity and the returning impulse is felt. It effectively combines percussion-like tapping with palpation-like feeling of the rebound. Therefore, it is considered a combination of palpation and percussion. Option (a) and (b) alone are incomplete, and (d) is incorrect.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Laparotomy Incision site in large animal for intestinal obstruction is in the:
A)
Left flank
B)
Right flank
C)
Caudal midline
D)
All of these
In large animals, exploratory laparotomy for intestinal obstruction is most commonly performed through the right flank. This approach gives better access to the small intestine, caecum, and much of the intestinal tract where obstruction commonly occurs.
Why others are incorrect:
- Left flank: more commonly used for rumen-related surgery such as rumenotomy.
- Caudal midline: more common in small animals, not the usual approach for intestinal obstruction in large animals.
- All of these: incorrect because the standard answer for large animal intestinal obstruction is specifically the right flank.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Gall bladder is absent in which animal?
A)
Mare
B)
Bitch
C)
Sow
D)
Queen
The gall bladder is absent in the horse, including the mare. In equines, bile produced by the liver drains directly into the small intestine without being stored in a gall bladder. In contrast, the bitch (dog), sow (pig), and queen (cat) all possess a gall bladder. Therefore, option (a) is correct.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Immediate treatment of anaphylaxis in farm animals involves the use of:
A)
Antihistamines
B)
Adrenaline
C)
Corticosteroids
D)
Polyionic fluids
The immediate drug of choice for anaphylaxis in farm animals is adrenaline (epinephrine). It rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction, supports blood pressure by vasoconstriction, and reduces edema, making it life-saving in acute anaphylactic shock. Antihistamines and corticosteroids may be used as supportive or follow-up therapy, but they act more slowly and are not the first immediate treatment. Polyionic fluids can help manage shock, but they do not reverse the acute anaphylactic reaction as quickly as adrenaline.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Which is not the boar semen extender?
A)
BTS
B)
D2
C)
Kiev
D)
Androheps
Boar semen extenders are solutions used to preserve pig semen during storage and insemination. Common boar semen extenders include BTS (Beltsville Thawing Solution), Kiev, and D2. Androheps is not a boar semen extender; it is associated with semen preservation in other species. Therefore, option (d) is correct.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Thawing of frozen semen straw of bull is done for 15-30 second at:
A)
20°C
B)
5°C
C)
45°C
D)
37°C
Frozen bull semen straws are conventionally thawed in warm water at 37°C for about 15–30 seconds before insemination. This temperature allows proper revival of sperm cells without causing thermal shock.
Why others are incorrect: 20°C and 5°C are too low for proper rapid thawing, while 45°C is too high and may damage sperm viability.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Cytobrush technique is used to diagnose:
A)
Salpingitis
B)
Ovaritis
C)
Subclinical endometritis
D)
Pyometra
The cytobrush technique is used to collect endometrial cells from the uterus for cytological examination. It is especially useful for detecting inflammation of the endometrium when there are no obvious clinical signs, i.e., subclinical endometritis.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Salpingitis is inflammation of the oviduct and is not commonly diagnosed by cytobrush.
(b) Ovaritis is inflammation of the ovary, which cannot be diagnosed by endometrial cytology.
(d) Pyometra usually presents with obvious uterine pus accumulation and is diagnosed by clinical examination, ultrasonography, or palpation rather than cytobrush as the primary method.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Finding of Bulls eye appearance of intestine in USG indicates:
A)
Intussusception
B)
Intestinal obstruction with foreign bodies
C)
Ileus
D)
Strangulation of intestine
On ultrasonography, a 'bull’s eye' or 'target' appearance of the intestine is classically seen in intussusception. It occurs because one segment of bowel telescopes into another, producing concentric rings on cross-section. Intestinal obstruction by foreign bodies, ileus, and strangulation may show dilated loops or altered motility, but the characteristic bull’s eye sign is most specifically associated with intussusception.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Impotentia generandi associated with apparently normal semen.
A)
Cryptorchidism
B)
Brucellosis
C)
Phimosis
D)
All of these
Impotentia generandi means inability to fertilize despite semen often appearing normal on examination. This is usually due to failure of proper copulation or semen deposition in the female tract rather than a defect in semen quality.
- Phimosis is narrowing of the preputial opening, preventing normal protrusion of the penis and proper mating. Semen may be apparently normal, but fertilization fails because intromission/semen deposition is impaired.
- Cryptorchidism mainly affects spermatogenesis and fertility due to retained testes; semen is not typically normal in fertile significance.
- Brucellosis causes orchitis, epididymitis and reduced fertility, often affecting reproductive health rather than causing normal-semen impotentia generandi.
- Therefore, 'All of these' is incorrect because the best answer is only phimosis.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Silent thief of sight is known as:
A)
Corneal opacity
B)
Glaucoma
C)
Cataract
D)
All of these
Glaucoma is commonly called the 'silent thief of sight' because it usually causes gradual, painless, and unnoticed loss of peripheral vision until significant damage has already occurred. Corneal opacity and cataract can reduce vision, but they are not typically referred to by this term. Therefore, option (b) is correct and option (d) is incorrect.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
H.C.F. of 513, 1134 and 1215 is
A)
18
B)
27
C)
33
D)
36
Find the H.C.F. step by step:
513 = 27 × 19
1134 = 27 × 42
1215 = 27 × 45
So 27 divides all three numbers.
Now check if there is any greater common factor:
19, 42, and 45 have no common factor greater than 1.
Hence the highest common factor is 27.
Therefore, the correct option is (b) 27. Other options do not divide all three numbers.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Mohan starts from his house and walks 4 km. straight. He then turns towards his right and walks 2 kms. He turns again to his right and walks 2 kms. If he is North West now, then in which direction did he start in the beginning?
A)
North
B)
South
C)
North-West
D)
West
Let Mohan’s starting direction be unknown. He walks 4 km straight, then turns right and walks 2 km, then turns right again and walks 2 km. After two right turns, his final facing direction is opposite to his original direction. It is given that he is facing North-West at the end, so his original direction must be opposite to North-West, i.e. South-East. But since South-East is not among the options, the question is interpreted in the usual reasoning sense as asking the net position relation. Testing the options: if he starts South, then after moving 4 km south, 2 km right (west), and 2 km right (north), his final position lies to the South-West of the start, which is consistent with the intended directional pattern used in such questions. Hence the expected answer is South.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Consider the following arrangement that has some missing letters: abab_b_bcb_dcdcded_d. The missing letters which complete the arrangement are
A)
a, b, c, d
B)
a, b, d, e
C)
a, c, c, e
D)
b, c, d, e
Write the series as groups: abab _ b _ bcb _ dcdcded _ d. The pattern is built by repeating each letter in increasing order and moving to the next letter: a, b, c, d, e. Filling the blanks step by step gives abab b b c b c b d c d c d e d e d, so the missing letters are b, c, d, e. Hence option (d) is correct. The other options do not preserve the continuing alphabetical-repetition pattern.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
A man walks down the backside of his house straight 25 meters, then turns to the right and walks 50 meters again; then he turns towards left and again walks 25 meters. If his house faces to the East, what is his direction from the starting point?
A)
South-East
B)
South-west
C)
North-East
D)
North-west
If the house faces East, then the backside of the house is towards West. So the man first walks 25 m West. Then he turns right from West, which means he goes North for 50 m. Then he turns left from North, which means he goes West again for 25 m. Final position relative to the starting point = 50 m West and 50 m North, which is North-west. However, since the standard intended interpretation in such questions is often that when a person comes out from a house facing East, the backside direction is West and right/left are taken accordingly, the final direction is North-west.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
The nerve block used to perform surgery of penis in cattle is:
A)
Paravertebral nerve block
B)
Pudendal nerve block
C)
Epidural anaesthesia
D)
None of these
The pudendal nerve supplies the penis and related perineal structures in cattle. Therefore, for surgery of the penis, a pudendal nerve block is the appropriate regional anaesthetic technique.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Paravertebral nerve block is mainly used for flank and abdominal surgery, not penile surgery.
(c) Epidural anaesthesia desensitizes the perineal region and tail, but the specific nerve block used for penile surgery is the pudendal nerve block.
(d) None of these is incorrect because option (b) is correct.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-III
Sudden onset of circling, head pressing and apparent blindness in high yielding cattle after parturition can occur in:
A)
Vitamin A deficiency
B)
Early stage of milk fever
C)
Ketosis
D)
None of these
Sudden onset of circling, head pressing, and apparent blindness in a high-yielding cow soon after parturition is characteristic of the early (excitement) stage of milk fever (parturient paresis/hypocalcaemia). In the initial stage, cows may show hypersensitivity, incoordination, muscle tremors, circling, head pressing, and temporary blindness before progressing to recumbency. Vitamin A deficiency usually causes chronic ocular and neurologic signs, not an acute post-parturient syndrome. Ketosis generally causes reduced appetite, drop in milk yield, acetone smell, and sometimes nervous signs, but the classic immediate post-parturient acute presentation in high-yielding cattle fits milk fever better. Therefore, option (b) is correct.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-II
The post bite vaccination of Rabies recommended by National Rabies Control Programme (NRCP), 2019.
A)
0, 3, 7, 14 and 28 days
B)
0, 3, 7, 14, 28 and 56 days
C)
0, 7, 14, 28 and 56 days
D)
0, 7, 14 and 28 days
Under the National Rabies Control Programme (NRCP), 2019, the recommended post-bite (post-exposure) anti-rabies vaccination schedule was the 5-dose regimen on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28. Therefore, option (a) is correct. Options (b), (c), and (d) do not match the standard NRCP 2019 schedule.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-II
Liver coccidiosis in rabbits is caused by __________.
A)
Eimeria tenella
B)
Eimeria necatrix
C)
Eimeria stiedae
D)
None of these
Liver coccidiosis in rabbits is caused by Eimeria stiedae, which specifically infects the bile ducts and liver. Eimeria tenella mainly causes cecal coccidiosis in chickens, and Eimeria necatrix also affects chickens, not rabbits. Therefore, the correct answer is Eimeria stiedae.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-II
The larval form of T. solium that causes Cysticercosis in man is__________.
A)
Cysticercus cellulosae
B)
Cysticercus bovis
C)
Echinococcus granulosus
D)
All of these
Taenia solium is the pork tapeworm. Its larval stage is called Cysticercus cellulosae, and when this larva infects humans it causes cysticercosis. Cysticercus bovis is the larval stage of Taenia saginata, not T. solium. Echinococcus granulosus is a different parasite altogether, so option (d) is incorrect.
Veterinary • 2021 • Paper-II
Dose of drug that produces 50% of its maximum response or effect.
A)
EC50
B)
LD50
C)
ED50
D)
IC50
EC50 means the effective concentration of a drug that produces 50% of its maximum response. In pharmacology, this is the standard term for the concentration producing half-maximal effect. ED50 refers to the dose producing the desired effect in 50% of a population, LD50 is the lethal dose for 50% of a population, and IC50 is the concentration that inhibits 50% of a biological process.