← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
What is contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A)
Forms of Oath or Affirmation
B)
Languages recognised by the Constitution
C)
Laws that cannot be challenged in any Court of Law
D)
Provision regarding disqualification of the grounds of defection
The 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the grounds of defection. It is popularly known as the Anti-Defection Law and was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because the Forms of Oath or Affirmation are contained in the 3rd Schedule.
- Option 'b' is incorrect because the languages recognised by the Constitution are listed in the 8th Schedule.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because the 9th Schedule contains acts and regulations (originally designed to protect certain laws from judicial scrutiny).
In the context of Indian Industry, what does the term ‘Navratna’ refer to?
A)
Nine strategic industries reserved for the public sector.
B)
Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) given greater managerial and operational autonomy.
C)
Nine private companies that export the most.
D)
The nine jewels of Akbar’s court applied to modern banking.
The correct option is 'b'. The term 'Navratna' refers to a group of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India that have been granted greater financial, managerial, and operational autonomy by the government to help them compete globally. Originally introduced in 1997 with nine enterprises, the status allows these companies to make significant investment decisions without prior government approval. Option 'a' is incorrect because strategic industries reserved for the public sector are classified differently. Option 'c' is incorrect because the status is exclusive to public sector enterprises, not private companies. Option 'd' is incorrect because, although the name is inspired by Akbar's court, the concept is applied to public sector industries rather than modern banking.
With reference to Poverty Estimation in India, the Planning Commission accepted the calorie norm of:
A)
2100 calories for rural and 2400 calories for urban areas.
B)
2400 calories for rural and 2100 calories for urban areas.
C)
2200 calories for both rural and urban areas.
D)
1800 calories for rural and 2200 calories for urban areas.
The Planning Commission of India, based on the recommendations of the Y.K. Alagh Committee (1979), accepted the nutritional requirement of 2400 calories per capita per day for rural areas and 2100 calories per capita per day for urban areas. The higher calorie norm for rural areas is justified by the greater amount of physical labor involved in rural occupations like agriculture. Option 'a' is incorrect because it swaps the rural and urban calorie requirements. Options 'c' and 'd' are incorrect because they state incorrect calorie figures that do not align with the official norms adopted by the Planning Commission.
Which linguistic group has the largest number of speakers in India?
A)
The Dravidians
B)
The Indo-Aryans
C)
The Austric
D)
The Sino-Tibetan
The Indo-Aryan linguistic group (a branch of the Indo-European family) has the largest number of speakers in India, accounting for approximately 74% to 78% of the total population. It includes major languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Urdu, Gujarati, Punjabi, and Odia. In contrast, the Dravidian group (option a) is the second-largest, spoken by about 20% to 24% of the population, primarily in southern India. The Austric (option c) and Sino-Tibetan (option d) groups are spoken by much smaller minorities, representing roughly 1.2% and 0.6% of the population respectively.
Match the following: A. Constitution Fifty-Eighth Amendment Act, 1991. -> 1. Delhi to be called as National Capital Territory of Delhi. B. Constitution Sixty-First Amendment Act, 1988. -> 2. Reduced voting age from 21 years to 18 years. C. Constitution Sixty-Ninth Amendment Act, 1991. -> 3. An authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi. D. Constitution Seventy-First Amendment Act, 1992. -> 4. Included Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages in the Eight Schedule.
A)
3 2 1 4
B)
3 1 2 4
C)
2 1 2 4
D)
4 2 1 3
The correct matching is as follows:
- **A. Constitution Fifty-Eighth Amendment Act (1987/1991) -> 3. An authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi**: This amendment provided for an authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi and gave the same legal sanctity to the Hindi version.
- **B. Constitution Sixty-First Amendment Act, 1988 -> 2. Reduced voting age from 21 years to 18 years**: This amendment lowered the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
- **C. Constitution Sixty-Ninth Amendment Act, 1991 -> 1. Delhi to be called as National Capital Territory of Delhi**: This amendment accorded special status to the Union Territory of Delhi, designating it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and providing for a legislative assembly.
- **D. Constitution Seventy-First Amendment Act, 1992 -> 4. Included Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages in the Eighth Schedule**: This amendment added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali to the list of official languages in the Eighth Schedule.
This corresponds to the sequence **3 2 1 4**, which is option **a**. Other options are incorrect because they do not represent the correct pairings of these constitutional amendments.
Who amongst the following issues Writs?
A)
Supreme Court of India
B)
High Court of a State
C)
President of India
D)
Both (a) & (b)
In India, the power to issue writs is vested in both the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Under Article 226, High Courts have a broader power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other legal rights. Therefore, option (d) is correct as it includes both (a) and (b). The President of India (option c) does not possess the judicial authority to issue writs.
Which writ is issued to address unlawful detention?
A)
Mandamus
B)
Quo Warranto
C)
Habeas Corpus
D)
Prohibition
The writ of 'Habeas Corpus' (literally meaning 'to have the body of') is issued by courts to protect individual liberty against unlawful detention. It commands the detaining authority to produce the detained person before the court to examine the legality of the detention. Other options are incorrect because: 'Mandamus' is issued to command a public official to perform their duty; 'Quo Warranto' is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office; and 'Prohibition' is issued by a higher court to a lower court to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction.
A person can directly move to the Supreme Court in case of any violation of Fundamental Rights. Which Article allows for this?
A)
Article 31
B)
Article 32
C)
Article 29
D)
Article 30
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution (Right to Constitutional Remedies) allows an individual to directly approach the Supreme Court of India for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights in case of any violation. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously referred to Article 32 as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. Other options are incorrect because: Article 31 originally dealt with the Right to Property (repealed by the 44th Amendment); Article 29 protects the interests of minorities regarding language, script, and culture; and Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
A)
DPSPs cannot be enforced automatically and require legislation for implementation
B)
DPSPs are non-justiciable in nature
C)
DPSPs aim to enforce political democracy in the country
D)
DPSPs are mentioned in part IV of the Constitution
Statement 'c' is incorrect because the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) aim to establish social and economic democracy in the country, not political democracy. Political democracy is established and secured by the Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution).
- Option 'a' is a correct statement: DPSPs are not self-executing and require specific laws/legislation enacted by the government to be implemented.
- Option 'b' is a correct statement: DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be legally enforced by courts of law if violated.
- Option 'd' is a correct statement: DPSPs are indeed enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
Guru Ghasidas is one of the largest National Parks in India and is located in the state of:
A)
Gujarat
B)
Uttarakhand
C)
Chhattisgarh
D)
Andhra Pradesh
Guru Ghasidas National Park is located in the state of Chhattisgarh (specifically in the Koriya, Manendragarh-Chirmiri-Bharatpur, and Surajpur districts). It was formerly part of the Sanjay National Park before Chhattisgarh was separated from Madhya Pradesh.
Why other options are incorrect:
- (a) Gujarat: Known for national parks like Gir National Park and Blackbuck National Park.
- (b) Uttarakhand: Famous for Jim Corbett National Park, Valley of Flowers, and Nanda Devi National Park.
- (d) Andhra Pradesh: Home to Papikonda National Park and Sri Venkateswara National Park.
Under the ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)’, who are the targeted beneficiaries?
A)
All families below the poverty line (BPL).
B)
The poorest of the poor among the BPL families.
C)
Only senior citizens.
D)
Families affected by natural calamities.
1. **Why Option 'b' is correct**: The Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) was launched in December 2000 to target the 'poorest of the poor' among the Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. It aims to provide highly subsidized food grains (such as wheat and rice) to ensure food security for this highly vulnerable segment.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option 'a'** is incorrect because AAY does not cover all BPL families; it specifically targets only the poorest tier within the BPL category.
- **Option 'c'** is incorrect because the scheme is not restricted only to senior citizens, though destitute senior citizens may be included under its criteria.
- **Option 'd'** is incorrect because AAY is a permanent social welfare scheme for the poorest of the poor, rather than a temporary relief scheme for victims of natural calamities.
Which one is the least urbanised among the following states of India?
A)
Chhattisgarh
B)
Jharkhand
C)
Odisha
D)
Rajasthan
According to the 2011 Census of India, the urbanization rates (percentage of urban population to the total population) of the given states are as follows: Odisha has the lowest urbanization rate at approximately 16.68%. In comparison, Chhattisgarh has an urbanization rate of 23.24%, Jharkhand has 24.05%, and Rajasthan has 24.87%. Therefore, Odisha is the least urbanised state among the options provided.
Consider the following statements: 1. The term of office of the Prime Minister of India is fixed at 5 years 2. No one under 30 years can become the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given is/are correct?
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 Nor 2
1. **Statement 1 is incorrect**: The term of the Prime Minister of India is not constitutionally fixed. According to Article 75 of the Constitution, the Prime Minister holds office during the pleasure of the President. In practice, the Prime Minister remains in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha.
2. **Statement 2 is incorrect**: To become the Prime Minister, a person must be a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. The minimum age eligibility for the Lok Sabha is 25 years, while for the Rajya Sabha, it is 30 years. Therefore, a person who is 25 years old can become the Prime Minister of India if they are a member of the Lok Sabha.
Since both statements are incorrect, the correct option is 'd' (Neither 1 Nor 2).
‘Jog Falls’ is created by which river?
A)
Narmada
B)
Mahanadi
C)
Sharavathi
D)
Krishna
Jog Falls, one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India, is created by the Sharavathi River in the Shimoga district of Karnataka. The other options are incorrect because: Narmada River is famous for creating the Dhuandhar Falls in Madhya Pradesh; Mahanadi River is associated with the Hirakud Dam and does not form Jog Falls; Krishna River is associated with waterfalls like Ethipothala Falls but not Jog Falls.
Which of the following is a direct tax?
A)
Goods and Services Tax (GST)
B)
Excise Duty
C)
Customs Duty
D)
Corporation Tax
Corporation Tax is a direct tax because it is levied directly on the net income or profits of corporate entities, and the liability to pay it cannot be shifted to another entity. On the other hand, Goods and Services Tax (GST), Excise Duty, and Customs Duty are indirect taxes because they are levied on goods and services, and the tax burden is ultimately passed on to the final consumer.
Consolidation of land holdings helps to:
A)
Increase fragmentation
B)
Reduce soil fertility
C)
Improve efficiency and reduce boundary disputes
D)
Increase tenancy
Consolidation of land holdings refers to the practice of merging scattered, small plots of land into a single, compact farm. This process significantly improves agricultural efficiency by allowing the use of modern machinery, better irrigation management, and easier supervision. It also reduces the number of shared borders, thereby minimizing boundary disputes among farmers. Option 'a' is incorrect because consolidation reduces fragmentation rather than increasing it. Option 'b' is incorrect because consolidation does not reduce soil fertility. Option 'd' is incorrect because consolidation is aimed at improving operational efficiency for landholders and does not inherently increase tenancy.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A)
Gujarat has the longest coastline in India
B)
Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal in India
C)
Kovalam is the longest sea-beach in India
D)
Deccan Plateau is the largest plateau of India
The statement in option 'c' is incorrect because Marina Beach in Chennai (Tamil Nadu) is the longest natural urban beach in India (and the second longest in the world), not Kovalam Beach. Therefore, 'c' is the correct answer to this question.
Why other options are incorrect (as they are true statements):
- Option 'a': Gujarat indeed has the longest coastline in India, stretching about 1,214.7 km.
- Option 'b': The Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal in India, with a total length of about 650 km.
- Option 'd': The Deccan Plateau is the largest plateau in India, covering an area of about 500,000 square km across eight Indian states.
Which of the following is not correct about Act East Policy?
A)
India’s Act East Policy was unveiled by the Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi at 12th ASEAN-India Summit in 2014 held in Myanmar.
B)
Act East Policy is the predecessor of Look East Policy.
C)
The Act East Policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative.
D)
The objective of ‘Act East Policy’ is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and development strategic relationship with countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
The statement in option 'b' is incorrect because the 'Look East Policy' (launched in 1991) is the predecessor of the 'Act East Policy' (launched in 2014), making the Act East Policy the successor, not the predecessor.
Why other options are correct statements:
- Option 'a' is correct: Prime Minister Narendra Modi formally launched the Act East Policy at the 12th ASEAN-India Summit in Myanmar in November 2014.
- Option 'c' is correct: The policy (originating from the Look East Policy of 1991) was originally conceived primarily as an economic initiative to integrate India with the high-growth East Asian economies.
- Option 'd' is correct: The core objective of the Act East Policy is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties, and develop strategic relationships with countries in the Asia-Pacific region through proactive engagement.
Which of the following statements are correct? (i) By-Elections:- An election which is held out of normal schedule is called by-election. (ii) Mid-term Elections:- If the Lok Sabha or any of the state assemblies is dissolved before the expiry of its full term and elections are held to constitute a new house, it is called mid-term elections. (iii) General Elections:- A general election is a political voting election where generally all or most members of a given political body are chosen. (iv) Snap Poll:- A snap poll is an election that is called earlier than the one that has been scheduled. It can happen by dissolution of Lok Sabha before its full tenure.
A)
(i) only
B)
(i), (ii), (iii)
C)
All of the above
D)
(i) & (iv)
All the given statements are correct definitions of the respective election terms:
1. **By-Elections (i)**: These are held to fill a vacancy caused by the death, resignation, or disqualification of an incumbent member, which occurs outside the normal election schedule.
2. **Mid-term Elections (ii)**: These are conducted when the Lok Sabha or a State Legislative Assembly is dissolved before completing its full five-year term, requiring a new house to be constituted.
3. **General Elections (iii)**: These are regular elections held at the end of the full term of the legislative body to elect all or most of its members.
4. **Snap Poll (iv)**: This refers to an election called earlier than scheduled, often triggered by the premature dissolution of the legislature (such as the Lok Sabha) due to a loss of majority or political strategy.
Since all statements (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct, option 'c' (All of the above) is the correct choice. Options 'a', 'b', and 'd' are incorrect because they are incomplete.
Who among the following is known as the ‘Architect of Indian Planning’ for his contribution to the Second Five Year Plan strategy?
A)
V.K.R.V. Rao
B)
Dadabhai Naoroji
C)
P.C. Mahalanobis
D)
Amartya Sen
Prasanta Chandra (P.C.) Mahalanobis is widely regarded as the 'Architect of Indian Planning'. He formulated the strategy for the Second Five Year Plan (1956–1961), which focused on rapid industrialization and the development of basic and heavy industries (known as the Mahalanobis Model).
- **V.K.R.V. Rao (Option a):** He was a prominent Indian economist known for being the first to apply scientific methods to estimate India's national income, but he was not the architect of the Second Plan.
- **Dadabhai Naoroji (Option b):** Known as the 'Grand Old Man of India', he was the first to estimate national income during the British era and proposed the 'Drain of Wealth' theory.
- **Amartya Sen (Option d):** He is a Nobel laureate economist famous for his contributions to welfare economics, social choice theory, and human development, long after the early Five-Year Plans.
The Competition Act replaced the:
A)
FEMA
B)
FERA
C)
MRTP Act
D)
SEBI Act
The Competition Act, 2002 was enacted to promote and sustain competition in markets, protect the interests of consumers, and ensure freedom of trade in India. It officially replaced the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969, which was considered outdated in the post-economic liberalization era. Among the incorrect options: FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999) replaced FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973) to facilitate external trade and payments, while the SEBI Act, 1992 was established to regulate the securities market and remains active.
Liberalisation policies in India aimed to:
A)
Reduce foreign investment
B)
Expand public sector monopoly
C)
Control industrial growth
D)
Increase the role of the private sector
Liberalisation policies introduced in India in 1991 aimed to deregulate the economy, dismantle the 'License Raj', and reduce government intervention, thereby significantly increasing the role of the private sector in economic development. Option 'a' is incorrect because the policies aimed to encourage and increase foreign investment, not reduce it. Option 'b' is incorrect because liberalisation sought to end public sector monopolies by opening up various industries to private players. Option 'c' is incorrect because the objective was to stimulate and accelerate industrial growth by removing restrictive barriers, rather than controlling it.
With reference to the 1991 Economic Reforms, ‘Stabilisation Measures’ refer to:
A)
Long-term measures to improve the efficiency of the economy.
B)
Short-term measures to correct Balance of Payments and control inflation.
C)
Privatisation of all Public Sector Units.
D)
Removal of all trade barriers immediately.
The economic reform measures initiated in 1991 in India are broadly classified into two groups: Stabilisation Measures and Structural Reform Measures.
1. **Why Option B is correct:** Stabilisation measures are short-term policy initiatives intended to correct the weaknesses that had developed in the Balance of Payments (BoP) and to bring inflation under control. They aimed to maintain sufficient foreign exchange reserves and keep prices from rising.
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option A** describes 'Structural Reform Measures', which are long-term policies aimed at improving the efficiency of the economy and increasing its international competitiveness by removing rigidities in various sectors.
- **Options C and D** represent specific components of structural reforms (Privatisation and Liberalisation). Moreover, India did not privatise 'all' PSUs nor did it remove 'all' trade barriers 'immediately'; these reforms were phased and gradual.
The Mahalanobis strategy of planning emphasized:
A)
Agriculture-led growth
B)
Heavy industrialization
C)
Export-led growth
D)
Service sector dominance
The Mahalanobis strategy of planning, which formed the basis of India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), strongly emphasized rapid industrialization with a focus on heavy and basic industries (capital goods sector) to achieve long-term self-reliant economic growth. Option 'a' (Agriculture-led growth) was the focus of the First Five-Year Plan. Option 'c' (Export-led growth) was not favored, as the model leaned towards import substitution and self-sufficiency. Option 'd' (Service sector dominance) is incorrect because the service sector became a major driver of the Indian economy much later, post the 1991 economic reforms.
Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B)
Jawaharlal Nehru
C)
M.A. Jinnah
D)
Lal Bahadur Shastri
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly of India on December 11, 1946, succeeding Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, who was the temporary President.
- **Option b (Jawaharlal Nehru):** He was a prominent member of the Assembly and moved the historic 'Objectives Resolution', but he was not the President.
- **Option c (M.A. Jinnah):** He was the leader of the Muslim League and went on to become the first Governor-General of Pakistan.
- **Option d (Lal Bahadur Shastri):** He was a key freedom fighter and later became the second Prime Minister of India, but he did not hold the post of President of the Constituent Assembly.