← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were made a part of the Preamble by:
A)
Constitution Forty-First Amendment Act, 1976
B)
Constitution Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
C)
Constitution Forty-Sixth Amendment Act, 1982
D)
Constitution Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976
The words 'socialist', 'secular', and 'integrity' were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, which is often referred to as the 'Mini-Constitution' due to the vast number of changes it introduced.
- Option 'a' (41st Amendment, 1976) is incorrect as it raised the retirement age of State Public Service Commission members from 60 to 62 years.
- Option 'b' (44th Amendment, 1978) is incorrect as it was enacted by the Janata Government to undo several distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment, particularly regarding emergency provisions and fundamental rights, but it did not remove these words from the Preamble.
- Option 'c' (46th Amendment, 1982) is incorrect as it primarily dealt with issues related to sales tax and indirect taxation.
In India, Right to Property is a:
A)
Legal Right
B)
Fundamental right
C)
Both a legal and a Fundamental Right
D)
Neither a legal right nor a Fundamental Right
In India, the Right to Property is currently a legal right. Originally, it was a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Constitution. However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and re-introduced it as Article 300A in Part XII, making it a legal (and constitutional) right. Therefore, option 'a' is correct. Options 'b' and 'c' are incorrect because it is no longer a Fundamental Right. Option 'd' is incorrect because it is indeed a legal right protected by Article 300A of the Constitution.
Choose the correct pair: (i) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18) (ii) Right to Freedom (Articles 29-30) (iii) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24) (iv) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
A)
(i), (ii), (iii)
B)
(ii), (iii), (iv)
C)
(i), (ii), ( iv)
D)
(i), (iii), (iv)
To determine the correct pairs, let's analyze each statement based on the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution:
1. **(i) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)** is correct.
2. **(ii) Right to Freedom (Articles 29-30)** is incorrect. The Right to Freedom is covered under Articles 19-22. Articles 29-30 actually guarantee 'Cultural and Educational Rights'.
3. **(iii) Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)** is correct.
4. **(iv) Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)** is correct.
Since pairs (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct, option 'd' is the correct choice. Options 'a', 'b', and 'c' are incorrect because they include the incorrect pair (ii).
Which of the following is correct about Fundamental Duties? (i) These are mentioned in Part-IV (A) of the Indian Constitution in the Article 51(A). (ii) They were taken from the Constitution of the USA. (iii) Fundamental Duties cannot be enforced by the courts. (iv) Not all citizens have the liberty to enjoy Fundamental Duties
A)
(i) & (ii)
B)
(i), (ii), (iii), ( iv)
C)
(i) & (iii)
D)
(i) & (iv)
Statement (i) is correct because the Fundamental Duties are indeed incorporated in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution under Article 51A, added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976. Statement (iii) is also correct because Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by the courts of law. Statement (ii) is incorrect because the Fundamental Duties were borrowed from the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR, not the USA. Statement (iv) is incorrect because Fundamental Duties are civic obligations applicable to all citizens of India, not rights or liberties to be 'enjoyed'. Therefore, only statements (i) and (iii) are correct, making option 'c' the correct choice.
The members of which of the following can be appointed as ministers in State Government? 1. State Legislative Assembly 2. State Legislative Council 3. Panchayat 4. Municipality
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 1 & 2
C)
Only 1, 2 & 3
D)
All of the above
According to the Constitution of India (Article 164), a minister in a State Government must be a member of either the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) or the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad, in states where bicameralism exists). If a non-member is appointed as a minister, they must get elected to either of these two houses within six months. Members of Panchayats (3) and Municipalities (4) are part of local self-government bodies and cannot be appointed as ministers in the State Government by virtue of their local body membership. Therefore, only members of the State Legislative Assembly and State Legislative Council can be appointed as ministers.
Which region in India is a major hub for the Iron and Steel Industry, benefiting from raw material proximity?
A)
Northern Gangetic Plain
B)
Konkan Plain
C)
Kerala Plain
D)
Chotanagpur Plateau
The Chotanagpur Plateau is the correct answer because it is the mineral heartland of India, rich in iron ore, coal, manganese, and limestone. This concentration of essential raw materials has made it the primary hub for the country's iron and steel industry, hosting major plants like Jamshedpur, Bokaro, and Rourkela. In contrast, the Northern Gangetic Plain (option a) is an agricultural region dominated by alluvial soils, while the Konkan Plain (option b) and Kerala Plain (option c) are coastal regions on the western coast known for agriculture, fisheries, and tourism rather than heavy mineral-based industries.
Consider the following statements: 1. The term of office of the Prime Minister of India is fixed at 5 years 2. No one under 30 years can become the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given is/are correct?
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 Nor 2
1. **Statement 1 is incorrect**: The term of the Prime Minister of India is not constitutionally fixed. According to Article 75 of the Constitution, the Prime Minister holds office during the pleasure of the President. In practice, the Prime Minister remains in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha.
2. **Statement 2 is incorrect**: To become the Prime Minister, a person must be a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. The minimum age eligibility for the Lok Sabha is 25 years, while for the Rajya Sabha, it is 30 years. Therefore, a person who is 25 years old can become the Prime Minister of India if they are a member of the Lok Sabha.
Since both statements are incorrect, the correct option is 'd' (Neither 1 Nor 2).
SEBI regulates the:
A)
Banking system
B)
Insurance sector
C)
Cooperative banks
D)
Capital market
SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is the statutory regulatory body established in 1992 to regulate and oversee the capital market and securities market in India, protecting the interests of investors. The other options are incorrect because: the banking system (a) and cooperative banks (c) are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), while the insurance sector (b) is regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
‘Saddle peak’- the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar island is located in:
A)
Great Nicobar
B)
Middle Andaman
C)
Little Andaman
D)
North Andaman
Saddle Peak is the highest point in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, with an elevation of 732 meters. It is located in North Andaman and is surrounded by Saddle Peak National Park.
- Great Nicobar: The highest peak here is Mount Thullier (642 m), which is the highest peak of the Nicobar group.
- Middle Andaman: The highest point here is Mount Diavolo (295 m).
- Little Andaman: This island is relatively flat with much lower elevations (highest point is around 183 m).
Which of the following best defines ‘Worker-Population Ratio’?
A)
The number of people unemployed divided by total population.
B)
The number of persons employed per 100 persons in the population.
C)
The ratio of male workers to female workers.
D)
The ratio of workers in the industrial sector to those in agriculture.
The Worker-Population Ratio (WPR) is a key indicator used to analyze the employment situation in a country. It is defined as the percentage of the total population that is actively employed, which mathematically translates to the number of employed persons per 100 persons in the population. Option 'a' is incorrect because it refers to unemployment rather than employment. Options 'c' and 'd' are incorrect as they describe gender distribution among workers and sectoral employment ratios, respectively, rather than the overall worker-to-population relationship.
Who among the following is known as the Father of the Constitution of India?
A)
BR Ambedkar
B)
Rajendra Prasad
C)
Jawahar Lal Nehru
D)
Subhash Chandra Bose
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is known as the 'Father of the Constitution of India' because he served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, which was responsible for preparing the final draft of the Constitution. His pivotal role in shaping its provisions and advocating for social justice earned him this title. Among the other options: Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) was the President of the Constituent Assembly; Jawaharlal Nehru (c) was the first Prime Minister of India and introduced the 'Objective Resolution'; and Subhash Chandra Bose (d) was a prominent nationalist leader who led the Indian National Army but was not involved in the drafting of the Constitution.
The reservation percentage for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in India’s Central Government jobs and education is:
A)
5%
B)
6%
C)
6.5%
D)
7.5%
In India, the reservation percentage allocated for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in Central Government jobs and higher education institutions is 7.5%. This is based on their proportion in the population as per the constitutional provisions. The other options (5%, 6%, and 6.5%) are incorrect as they do not represent the officially mandated reservation quota for STs at the central level (which is 15% for SCs, 7.5% for STs, and 27% for OBCs).
The High Court having the jurisdiction in Judicial matters relating to the largest number of States/ Union Territories is:
A)
Kolkata High Court
B)
Kerala High Court
C)
Mumbai High Court
D)
Guwahati High Court
Guwahati High Court has the largest jurisdiction in terms of the number of states it covers. It has jurisdiction over 4 states: Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh.
- Mumbai High Court has jurisdiction over 2 states (Maharashtra and Goa) and 1 Union Territory (Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu).
- Kolkata High Court has jurisdiction over 1 state (West Bengal) and 1 Union Territory (Andaman and Nicobar Islands).
- Kerala High Court has jurisdiction over 1 state (Kerala) and 1 Union Territory (Lakshadweep).
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
A)
DPSPs cannot be enforced automatically and require legislation for implementation
B)
DPSPs are non-justiciable in nature
C)
DPSPs aim to enforce political democracy in the country
D)
DPSPs are mentioned in part IV of the Constitution
Statement 'c' is incorrect because the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) aim to establish social and economic democracy in the country, not political democracy. Political democracy is established and secured by the Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution).
- Option 'a' is a correct statement: DPSPs are not self-executing and require specific laws/legislation enacted by the government to be implemented.
- Option 'b' is a correct statement: DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be legally enforced by courts of law if violated.
- Option 'd' is a correct statement: DPSPs are indeed enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
Which of the following Standing Committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?
A)
Public Accounts Committee
B)
Estimates Committee
C)
Committee on Public Undertakings
D)
Committee on Government Assurances
The Estimates Committee is the largest standing committee of the Parliament of India. It consists of 30 members, all of whom are elected exclusively from the Lok Sabha (Lower House). The Rajya Sabha (Upper House) has no representation in this committee. In contrast, the Public Accounts Committee (Option a) and the Committee on Public Undertakings (Option c) both have 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha). The Committee on Government Assurances (Option d) exists separately for both Houses (15 members in Lok Sabha and 10 members in Rajya Sabha).
Which is correct about the Government of India Act, 1919? (i) This Act is also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms (ii) A Constituent Assembly would be established consisting of 389 Members (iii) This Act made a provision for the establishment of an All India Federation consisting of provinces and Princely States as units. (iv) This Act introduce the system of Dyarchy which mean double rule in the provinces
A)
(i)
B)
(ii)
C)
(iii)
D)
(iv)
Statement (iv) is correct because the Government of India Act, 1919 introduced the system of 'Dyarchy' (dual rule) in the provinces, dividing provincial subjects into 'Transferred' and 'Reserved' categories.
Other statements are incorrect because:
- (i) The Government of India Act, 1919 is known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, whereas the Morley-Minto Reforms refer to the Act of 1909.
- (ii) The Constituent Assembly with 389 members was established under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, not the 1919 Act.
- (iii) The provision for an All India Federation consisting of provinces and Princely States was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1935.
Judge of a High Court can be removed before the expiry of his term by:
A)
The President on the recommendation of the Supreme Court
B)
The Governor on the recommendation of the state legislature
C)
The President on the recommendation of the state legislature
D)
The President on the recommendation of the Parliament
According to Article 217(1)(b) read with Article 124(4) of the Constitution of India, a Judge of a High Court can be removed from office only by an order of the President. This order is issued after an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a special majority (a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting) in the same session, is presented to the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Therefore, option 'd' is correct. Options 'b' and 'c' are incorrect because the State Legislature and the Governor have no role in the removal of a High Court Judge. Option 'a' is incorrect because the Supreme Court does not make the recommendation for removal; that power lies solely with the Parliament.
The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956 classified industries into three categories. Which of the following correctly describes ‘Schedule B’ industries?
A)
Industries exclusively owned by the state.
B)
Industries left entirely to the private sector without government interference.
C)
Industries which would be progressively state-owned, but private enterprise could supplement state effort.
D)
Industries reserved for the Small Scale Sector (SSI) only.
Under the Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956, industries were classified into three distinct categories:
1. **Schedule A (Option a):** Industries that were exclusively owned by the State (17 industries, such as arms and ammunition, atomic energy, railways, etc.).
2. **Schedule B (Option c):** Industries that would be progressively state-owned, where the government would take the initiative to set up new units, but private enterprise was also expected to supplement the efforts of the State (12 industries, including aluminum, machine tools, fertilizers, etc.).
3. **Schedule C (Option b):** The remaining industries that were left to the private sector, though they were subject to state regulation and licensing.
Option d is incorrect as the classification did not reserve Schedule B for the Small Scale Sector (SSI).
Judicial review function of the Supreme Court means the power to:
A)
Review the functioning of the judiciary in the country
B)
Undertake periodic review of the Constitution
C)
Examine the constitutional validity of laws
D)
Review its own judgement
Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments. If a law is found to violate the Constitution, the Supreme Court can declare it unconstitutional and void. Option 'a' is incorrect because supervising the administrative functioning of lower courts is part of administrative superintendence, not judicial review. Option 'b' is incorrect because the Supreme Court does not undertake periodic reviews of the Constitution; that is a legislative or constituent function. Option 'd' is incorrect because reviewing its own judgment is a specific power under Article 137 (Review Petition), which is distinct from the general doctrine of judicial review of legislative and executive actions.
‘Jog Falls’ is created by which river?
A)
Narmada
B)
Mahanadi
C)
Sharavathi
D)
Krishna
Jog Falls, one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India, is created by the Sharavathi River in the Shimoga district of Karnataka. The other options are incorrect because: Narmada River is famous for creating the Dhuandhar Falls in Madhya Pradesh; Mahanadi River is associated with the Hirakud Dam and does not form Jog Falls; Krishna River is associated with waterfalls like Ethipothala Falls but not Jog Falls.
Which writ is issued to address unlawful detention?
A)
Mandamus
B)
Quo Warranto
C)
Habeas Corpus
D)
Prohibition
The writ of 'Habeas Corpus' (literally meaning 'to have the body of') is issued by courts to protect individual liberty against unlawful detention. It commands the detaining authority to produce the detained person before the court to examine the legality of the detention. Other options are incorrect because: 'Mandamus' is issued to command a public official to perform their duty; 'Quo Warranto' is issued to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office; and 'Prohibition' is issued by a higher court to a lower court to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction.
Capital account balance of payment records:
A)
Export earnings
B)
Foreign investment and loans
C)
Insurance receipts
D)
Remittances
The Balance of Payments (BoP) is divided into the Current Account and the Capital Account. The Capital Account records transactions that lead to a change in the assets or liabilities of a country's residents or its government. This includes foreign investments (like FDI and FPI) and external loans or borrowings. Therefore, option 'b' is correct. In contrast, the Current Account records trade in goods, services, and transfer payments. 'Export earnings' (option a) and 'Insurance receipts' (option c) represent trade in goods and services respectively, while 'Remittances' (option d) are unilateral transfer payments; all of these are recorded in the Current Account.
Which of the following is a direct tax?
A)
Goods and Services Tax (GST)
B)
Excise Duty
C)
Customs Duty
D)
Corporation Tax
Corporation Tax is a direct tax because it is levied directly on the net income or profits of corporate entities, and the liability to pay it cannot be shifted to another entity. On the other hand, Goods and Services Tax (GST), Excise Duty, and Customs Duty are indirect taxes because they are levied on goods and services, and the tax burden is ultimately passed on to the final consumer.
‘Operation flood’ is related to:
A)
Flood control measures
B)
Milk production
C)
Fish production
D)
Shrimp production
‘Operation Flood’, launched in 1970 by India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), is the world's largest dairy development program. It is directly related to milk production and is credited with launching the 'White Revolution' which transformed India from a milk-deficient nation into the world's largest milk producer. Option 'a' (Flood control measures) is incorrect as the name is metaphorical and not related to natural disasters. Option 'c' (Fish production) is associated with the 'Blue Revolution', and Option 'd' (Shrimp production) is related to aquaculture/Pink Revolution.
‘Disguised Unemployment’ is a characteristic feature of which sector in India?
A)
Organized Industrial Sector
B)
Information Technology Sector
C)
Agriculture Sector
D)
Banking and Financial Sector
Disguised unemployment is a phenomenon where more people are employed in an activity than are actually needed, meaning the marginal productivity of the extra labor is zero. In India, this is a primary characteristic of the Agriculture Sector, where entire families often work on small landholdings because of a lack of alternative employment opportunities, even though fewer people could manage the farm just as effectively. In contrast, the Organized Industrial Sector (option a), Information Technology Sector (option b), and Banking and Financial Sector (option d) are highly structured, profit-driven, and skill-based sectors that optimize their workforce to avoid redundant labor, making disguised unemployment virtually non-existent there.