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Past Questions — 2025
A civil court may stay the execution of a decree under which provision?
A)
Section 115
B)
Order XXI Rule 26
C)
Section 151
D)
Order I Rule 10
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. The question asks for the provision under which a civil court may stay the execution of a decree.
2. Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) deals specifically with the 'Execution of Decrees and Orders'.
3. Order XXI Rule 26 explicitly empowers the court to stay the execution of a decree for a reasonable time, whether such stay is granted for a sufficient cause shown or to allow the judgment-debtor to apply for an appeal or other legal remedy.
4. Analysis of other options:
- Section 115: Relates to the 'Revision' power of the High Court, not the general stay of execution by a civil court.
- Section 151: Relates to the 'Inherent Powers' of the court. While inherent powers can be used in extreme cases, there is a specific provision (Order XXI Rule 26) for staying execution.
- Order I Rule 10: Relates to the 'Suit in name of wrong plaintiff' or 'Striking out or adding parties', which has nothing to do with the execution of a decree.
Therefore, Order XXI Rule 26 is the specific and correct provision.
The object of the rule of res sub judice under Section 10 CPC is to:
A)
Avoid conflicting decisions
B)
Enable appellate review
C)
Protect judicial independence
D)
Grant interim relief
Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, deals with the doctrine of 'Res Sub Judice' (meaning 'under judgment'). This rule mandates that a court shall not proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties.
1. Why Option (a) is correct: The primary objective of Section 10 is to prevent courts of concurrent jurisdiction from simultaneously trying two parallel suits in respect of the same cause of action. This prevents the possibility of two different courts delivering contradictory or conflicting judgments on the same matter, which would lead to legal chaos and uncertainty.
2. Why Option (b) is incorrect: Appellate review is a process where a higher court reviews the decision of a lower court; it is not the purpose of staying a trial under Res Sub Judice.
3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: Judicial independence refers to the ability of judges to decide cases based on law without external pressure; it is a constitutional principle, not the objective of Section 10.
4. Why Option (d) is incorrect: Interim relief (like temporary injunctions) is granted to preserve the status quo during a trial; Section 10 is about staying the trial itself, not granting relief.
A suit is said to be res sub judice under Section 10 of CPC when:
A)
It has already been decided by a competent court
B)
It is pending before another court between the same parties and on the same matter
C)
It involves a criminal case also
D)
The suit relates to different reliefs
Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, deals with the doctrine of 'Res Sub Judice' (meaning 'under judgment'). The purpose of this section is to prevent courts of concurrent jurisdiction from simultaneously trying two parallel suits in respect of the same matter in issue, thereby avoiding conflicting decisions and protecting the defendant from harassment.
For a suit to be stayed under Section 10, the following conditions must be met:
1. There must be two suits—one previously instituted and one subsequently instituted.
2. The matter in issue in the subsequent suit must be directly and substantially the same as in the previous suit.
3. Both suits must be between the same parties or their representatives.
4. The previous suit must be pending in the same court or any other court in India (or a court established by the Central Government outside India).
5. The court where the first suit is pending must be competent to grant the relief claimed in the second suit.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) describes 'Res Judicata' (Section 11), where a matter has already been decided.
- Option (c) is irrelevant, as Section 10 applies specifically to civil suits.
- Option (d) is incorrect because for Res Sub Judice to apply, the 'matter in issue' must be the same, regardless of whether the reliefs sought are identical or slightly different, provided the core issue is the same.
Which of the following is a condition precedent for execution of a decree under CPC?
A)
Consent of parties
B)
Entry of decree in the register
C)
Application for execution
D)
Appeal against the decree
Under the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), a court does not automatically execute a decree once it is passed. The decree-holder must initiate the process by filing an 'Application for Execution' under Order XXI. This application is the essential condition precedent that triggers the court's machinery to enforce the judgment.
Why other options are incorrect:
- (a) Consent of parties: Execution is a legal right of the decree-holder to enforce a court order; it does not require the consent of the judgment-debtor.
- (b) Entry of decree in the register: While administrative records are maintained, the formal trigger for the execution process is the application, not the mere act of registration.
- (d) Appeal against the decree: An appeal is a remedy to challenge a decree. While a stay of execution may be granted during an appeal, the filing of an appeal is not a 'condition precedent' for execution; in fact, execution can often proceed unless a stay order is specifically granted by the appellate court.
Which provision under CPC governs the territorial jurisdiction of civil courts?
A)
Section 9
B)
Section 15
C)
Section 10
D)
Section 144
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analysis of Section 15: Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) explicitly states that 'Every suit shall be instituted in the Court of the lowest grade competent to try it.' This provision governs the territorial and hierarchical jurisdiction by ensuring that cases are filed in the lowest competent court within the relevant territorial limits to prevent overcrowding of higher courts.
2. Analysis of Option (a) Section 9: This section deals with the 'Courts to try all civil suits unless barred.' It establishes the general jurisdiction of civil courts to hear cases of a civil nature, but it does not govern the specific territorial distribution or the 'grade' of the court.
3. Analysis of Option (c) Section 10: This section deals with 'Stay of suit' (Res Sub Judice), which prevents a court from proceeding with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties.
4. Analysis of Option (d) Section 144: This section deals with the 'Restitution,' which allows a party to be restored to their original position if a decree is reversed or modified.
Therefore, Section 15 is the correct provision governing the placement of a suit based on the competence (grade/territory) of the court.
Which one of the following is not an essential condition for applying the doctrine of res judicata under Section 11 of the CPC?
A)
Identity of subject matter
B)
Decision must be on merits
C)
Different parties in both suits
D)
Competence of earlier court
Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) deals with the doctrine of Res Judicata, which prevents a court from trying a suit or issue that has already been decided by a competent court. For Res Judicata to apply, several essential conditions must be met:
1. Identity of the matter in issue: The matter in the second suit must be directly and substantially the same as in the first suit (Identity of subject matter).
2. Same parties: The parties to the suits must be the same, or parties litigating under the same title.
3. Competence of the court: The court which decided the first suit must have been competent to try the subsequent suit.
4. Decision on merits: The matter must have been heard and finally decided by the court on its merits (not dismissed on technical grounds like lack of jurisdiction or default).
Looking at the options:
- Option (a) is an essential condition.
- Option (b) is an essential condition.
- Option (d) is an essential condition.
- Option (c) 'Different parties in both suits' is the opposite of a requirement. For Res Judicata to apply, the parties must be the same or litigating under the same title. Therefore, having different parties (who are not representatives of the original parties) would generally prevent the application of Res Judicata.
An ex parte decree may be set aside under Order IX Rule 13 if:
A)
The plaintiff was absent on the date of hearing
B)
The defendant shows sufficient cause for non-appearance
C)
The decree has been executed
D)
A new witness appears after decree
Under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), if a court has passed an ex parte decree (a decree passed in the absence of the defendant), the defendant may apply to the court to set aside that decree. The court will set aside the decree if the defendant satisfies the court that: (1) the summons was not duly served, or (2) they were prevented by 'sufficient cause' from appearing when the suit was called for hearing.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because an ex parte decree is passed specifically when the defendant is absent, not the plaintiff. If the plaintiff is absent, the suit is typically dismissed under Order IX Rule 8.
- Option (c) is incorrect because the execution of a decree does not automatically grant a right to set it aside; rather, the application to set aside the decree is often filed to stop further execution proceedings.
- Option (d) is incorrect because the appearance of a new witness is a matter for appeal or review on merits, not the specific procedural ground for setting aside an ex parte decree under Order IX Rule 13, which focuses on the reason for non-appearance.
Revision under Section 115 CPC lies when:
A)
The order is interlocutory
B)
The subordinate court has exercised jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity
C)
The High Court disagrees with the findings
D)
A new fact arises after the order
Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, deals with the High Court's power of Revision. Revision is a discretionary power of the High Court to ensure that subordinate courts act within the bounds of their jurisdiction.
According to Section 115, a revision application lies when a case has been decided by a subordinate court and:
1. The subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, or
2. The subordinate court has failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or
3. The subordinate court has acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because, following the 1999 and 2002 amendments to the CPC, revision is generally barred if the interlocutory order could have been challenged as an appeal or if the order is purely interlocutory in nature (Proviso to Section 115).
- Option (b) is correct as it directly mirrors the statutory language of Section 115 regarding jurisdictional errors.
- Option (c) is incorrect because Revision is not a 'second appeal'; the High Court does not revise an order simply because it disagrees with the findings of fact or law, but only when there is a jurisdictional error.
- Option (d) is incorrect because the emergence of a new fact is not a ground for Revision; Revision is based on the record of the case as it existed when the order was passed.
Which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, defines the concept of “decree”?
A)
Section 2(1)
B)
Section 2(2)
C)
Section 2(9)
D)
Section 2(14)
Under the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, the definitions of various legal terms are provided in Section 2.
1. Section 2(2) specifically defines a 'decree' as the formal expression of an adjudication which, so far as regards the Court expressing it, conclusively determines the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy in the suit. It may be preliminary or final.
Analysis of other options:
- Section 2(1) is not the definition of a decree; the definitions start with 2(1) for 'decree' in some older interpretations, but in the standard 1908 Code, 2(2) is the definitive section for 'decree'.
- Section 2(9) defines 'judgment'.
- Section 2(14) defines 'rules'.
Therefore, the correct legal provision for the definition of a 'decree' is Section 2(2).
Which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, deals with the power of the court to issue commissions?
A)
Section 72
B)
Section 75
C)
Section 80
D)
Section 88
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. The Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, provides for the appointment of commissions to assist the court in various tasks that cannot be efficiently performed by the court itself.
2. Section 75 of the CPC explicitly empowers the court to issue commissions for specific purposes, including: (a) examining witnesses, (b) making local investigations, (c) examining accounts, (d) making a partition, and (e) performing any other commission which may be appointed by the court.
3. Analysis of other options:
- Section 72 deals with the 'Commission to examine witnesses' specifically in the context of the court's power to examine witnesses via commission, but Section 75 is the primary substantive section granting the general power to issue commissions.
- Section 80 deals with the 'Notice' required before filing a suit against the Government or a public officer.
- Section 88 deals with the 'Execution of decree' in specific contexts (specifically relating to the transfer of decrees).
Therefore, Section 75 is the correct and authoritative section dealing with the power of the court to issue commissions.
Which of the following is not a condition for applying the doctrine of res judicata under Section 11?
A)
Same parties or their representatives
B)
Competent jurisdiction of the earlier court
C)
Matter must have been decided on merits
D)
The former decision must be appealable
Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) embodies the doctrine of Res Judicata, which prevents the same parties from litigating the same issue once it has been decided by a competent court. For Res Judicata to apply, the following conditions must be met:
1. The matter must be directly and substantially in issue in both the former and the subsequent suit.
2. The parties must be the same or litigating under the same title (Option a).
3. The court that decided the former suit must have been a court competent to try the subsequent suit (Option b).
4. The matter must have been heard and finally decided on its merits (Option c).
Option (d) is NOT a condition because the doctrine of res judicata applies regardless of whether the decision was appealable or whether an appeal was actually filed. Once a competent court delivers a final judgment on the merits, it is binding between the parties, whether or not the law provided a right to appeal that specific decision.
Which of the following is considered a ‘public demand’ under the Act?
A)
Private loans
B)
Land revenue arrears
C)
Personal debts
D)
Corporate taxes
Under the Mizoram Public Demands Recovery Act, 2001, a 'public demand' refers to any sum of money owed to the State Government or a local authority that is recoverable as a public demand under the provisions of the Act.
1. Land revenue arrears (Option b) are classic examples of public demands because they are statutory dues owed to the government for the use or ownership of land.
2. Private loans (Option a) and Personal debts (Option c) are civil matters between private parties and do not fall under the jurisdiction of a Public Demands Recovery Act, which is specifically designed for government recoveries.
3. Corporate taxes (Option d) are generally recovered under specific Tax Laws (such as the Income Tax Act) rather than the general Public Demands Recovery Act, unless specifically notified as a public demand under the state's recovery framework. However, in the context of standard administrative law and this specific Act, land revenue is the primary and most definitive example of a public demand.
Within how many days can a defaulter file a petition denying liability under Section 6?
A)
7 days
B)
15 days
C)
30 days
D)
60 days
Under the Mizoram Public Demands Recovery Act, 2001, Section 6 outlines the procedure for a defaulter to deny liability. According to the statutory provisions of the Act, once a certificate is filed and the notice is served, the defaulter has a specific window to file a petition denying the liability. The prescribed time limit for filing such a petition under Section 6 is 30 days from the date of service of the notice.
- Option (a) 7 days is incorrect as it is too short for legal petitions of this nature.
- Option (b) 15 days is incorrect as it does not align with the statutory period provided in the Act.
- Option (d) 60 days is incorrect as it exceeds the legal timeframe stipulated for the initial denial of liability.
How is a municipal area constituted under the Mizoram Municipalities Act, 2007?
A)
By a resolution passed in the State Legislative Assembly
B)
By a notification issued by the Governor
C)
By a majority vote in the municipal area
D)
By a directive from the Union Government
Under the Mizoram Municipalities Act, 2007, the constitution of a municipal area is an executive action taken by the State Government. Specifically, the Governor of the State, through a formal notification published in the Official Gazette, declares a local area to be a municipal area. This process allows the state to define the boundaries and the type of municipality (such as a Municipal Council or Nagar Panchayat) based on population and urban characteristics.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): While the Act itself was passed by the Legislative Assembly, the specific act of designating a particular area as a municipality is done via notification, not a separate legislative resolution for every town.
- Option (c): Municipal areas are constituted by the state authority, not by a local referendum or majority vote of the residents.
- Option (d): Municipalities fall under the State List (and the 74th Constitutional Amendment), meaning the Union Government has no direct authority to constitute a municipal area in a state like Mizoram.
What is the full form of ILP?
A)
Intensive Line Permit
B)
Inner Line Permit
C)
Internal Line Permit
D)
Inner Line Provision
The term ILP stands for 'Inner Line Permit'. It is an official travel document issued by the government to allow inland travelers (both domestic and foreign) to enter and travel in certain protected areas of India, particularly in the Northeast states like Mizoram, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Manipur. This system was originally introduced by the British to regulate the movement of people into tribal areas.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 'Intensive Line Permit' is incorrect as 'Intensive' has no legal or administrative meaning in this context.
- Option (c) 'Internal Line Permit' is a common misnomer, but the legal and official term is 'Inner'.
- Option (d) 'Inner Line Provision' is incorrect as ILP refers to the 'Permit' (the document) rather than a general 'Provision'.
Who has the authority to determine the number of wards in a municipal area?
A)
The State Election Commission
B)
The State Government
C)
The District Magistrate
D)
The Municipal Council
Under the Mizoram Municipalities Act, 2007, the power to divide a municipal area into wards (delimitation) and determine the number of such wards rests with the State Government. The State Government issues notifications to define the boundaries and the total number of wards to ensure equitable representation of the population within the municipal area.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. The State Election Commission is responsible for conducting the elections and preparing electoral rolls, not for the legislative determination of ward numbers.
- c. The District Magistrate assists in administration and may provide data for delimitation, but does not have the statutory authority to determine the number of wards.
- d. The Municipal Council is the body elected from these wards; it cannot determine its own structure or the number of wards it consists of, as this would be a conflict of interest and is a state-level administrative function.
What is the first step a Certificate Officer must take before proceeding with recovery under Section 5?
A)
Arrest of the defaulter
B)
Seizure of property
C)
Serving a notice to the defaulter
D)
Approving a warrant
Under the Mizoram Public Demands Recovery Act, 2001, the recovery process follows a strict legal sequence to ensure due process. Section 5 typically deals with the 'Notice of Demand'. Before any coercive action (such as attachment of property or arrest) can be taken to recover a public demand, the Certificate Officer is legally mandated to serve a formal notice to the certificate-debtor (defaulter). This notice informs the individual of the amount due and provides them with a specific window of time to pay the amount or file an objection. Only after the notice period expires without payment or resolution can the officer proceed to the recovery steps mentioned in other options.
- Option (a) and (b) are enforcement measures that occur only after the notice has been ignored or the debt is proven.
- Option (d) is a procedural step that follows the failure of the notice process.
Who is entitled to inherit the property of a deceased woman under the Act?
A)
Only her husband
B)
Only her male children
C)
Her children and legal heirs irrespective of gender
D)
Her father only
Under the Mizo Marriage, Divorce and Inheritance of Property Act, 2014, there is a significant shift toward gender equality regarding inheritance. Specifically, the Act ensures that the property of a deceased person (including a woman) is inherited by their children and legal heirs without discrimination based on gender. This removes traditional customary restrictions that might have previously favored male heirs. Therefore, option (c) is correct as it encompasses both children and other legal heirs regardless of whether they are male or female. Options (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect because they restrict inheritance to a single person or a specific gender, which contradicts the egalitarian provisions of the 2014 Act.
Under Section 151 CPC, inherent powers can be exercised by the court when:
A)
The Code expressly provides a remedy
B)
The matter involves criminal liability
C)
There is no express provision in CPC to address the issue
D)
The case is pending before a tribunal
Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) deals with the 'Inherent powers of Court'. It states that nothing in the Code shall limit or affect the inherent power of the Court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court.
1. Why Option (c) is correct: Inherent powers are supplementary in nature. They are exercised by the court only when the Code does not contain a specific provision to deal with a particular situation, but the interests of justice require the court to intervene. If a specific provision exists, the court must follow that provision rather than invoking Section 151.
2. Why Option (a) is incorrect: If the Code expressly provides a remedy, the court must use that specific remedy. Inherent powers cannot be used to override or bypass express provisions of the law.
3. Why Option (b) is incorrect: Section 151 is a provision of the Code of Civil Procedure; criminal liability is governed by the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) and the Indian Penal Code/BNS.
4. Why Option (d) is incorrect: While tribunals may have inherent powers, Section 151 specifically refers to the powers of the Civil Court under the CPC; the mere fact that a case is pending before a tribunal does not trigger the application of Section 151 CPC.
A male person appointed by the bride’s family to safely escort the bride and her party as she leaves for the house of the bridegroom and to present her to the bridegroom is called:
A)
Palai
B)
Lawichal
C)
Pazawn
D)
Pusum
In Mizo traditional marriage customs, the 'Palai' is a male relative or a person appointed by the bride's family to act as an escort. His primary responsibility is to ensure the bride and her party reach the groom's house safely and to formally present the bride to the groom.
Analysis of other options:
- Lawichal: Refers to the act of the bride leaving her parental home to go to the groom's house (the process of 'going to the husband's home').
- Pazawn: Refers to a specific type of traditional Mizo marriage (often associated with a bride-price or a specific social arrangement).
- Pusum: This is not a standard term for a marriage escort in Mizo customary law.
Which of the following matters is outside the scope of jurisdiction of civil courts under Section 9 of the CPC?
A)
Disputes involving contractual rights
B)
Enforcement of fundamental rights
C)
Matters relating to property ownership
D)
Tortious claims involving damages
Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) provides that the courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those of which their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred.
1. **Option (b) is correct** because the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is governed by the Constitution of India. Under Article 32 (Supreme Court) and Article 226 (High Courts), the power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights is vested exclusively in the Constitutional Courts. Therefore, a regular civil court cannot entertain a suit for the enforcement of fundamental rights as it is expressly barred by the constitutional scheme.
2. **Option (a) is incorrect** because disputes involving contractual rights are classic 'suits of a civil nature' and fall squarely within the jurisdiction of civil courts.
3. **Option (c) is incorrect** because matters relating to property ownership (title, possession, partition) are the primary subjects of civil litigation under Section 9.
4. **Option (d) is incorrect** because tortious claims (such as negligence or defamation) seeking monetary damages are civil wrongs and are triable by civil courts.
What is the tenure of a Village Council as per the Act?
A)
2 years
B)
3 years
C)
5 years
D)
6 years
Under the Lushai Hills (Village Councils) Act, 1953, the tenure of a Village Council is established to ensure stability and continuity in local governance. According to the statutory provisions of the Act, the term of office for the members of a Village Council is 5 years from the date of its constitution. After the completion of this five-year term, the council is dissolved, and new elections or appointments are conducted to form a new council. Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the legal timeframe specified in the 1953 Act.
What is the role of the Deputy Commissioner concerning the Village Councils as per the Act?
A)
Approves all village laws
B)
Conducts annual audits of Village Councils
C)
Oversees elections and can dissolve Village Councils if necessary
D)
Appoints village council members
Under the Lushai Hills (Village Councils) Act, 1953, the Deputy Commissioner (DC) acts as the primary administrative authority overseeing the functioning of Village Councils. Specifically, the DC is responsible for the supervision of the election process to ensure it is conducted according to the rules. Furthermore, the Act grants the Deputy Commissioner the power to dissolve a Village Council if it is found to be acting against the interests of the village, failing to perform its duties, or if there is a breakdown of law and order within the council's administration.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): While the DC has supervisory powers, village laws (customary laws) are generally governed by tradition and the council's internal consensus, subject to the Act, rather than a blanket 'approval' of every law by the DC.
- Option (b): While financial oversight exists, the primary 'role' defined in the structural governance of the Act emphasizes administrative control and dissolution powers over routine annual auditing.
- Option (c): Village Council members are typically elected by the village electorate, not appointed by the Deputy Commissioner.
Which of the following actions can a Certificate Officer take to enforce recovery?
A)
Seize and sell movable property
B)
Impose a fine
C)
Issue an arrest warrant
D)
All of the above
Under the Mizoram Public Demands Recovery Act, 2001, a Certificate Officer is empowered to recover the amount specified in a certificate through specific execution processes. According to the legal framework for recovery of public demands, the Certificate Officer can: 1. Attach and sell the movable property of the certificate-debtor; 2. Attach and sell the immovable property of the certificate-debtor; 3. Arrest and detain the certificate-debtor in civil prison.
Analyzing the options:
- Option (a) 'Seize and sell movable property' is a primary power granted to the Certificate Officer for enforcement.
- Option (b) 'Impose a fine' is incorrect because the Certificate Officer is recovering a debt/demand already established; they do not act as a judicial magistrate imposing criminal fines.
- Option (c) 'Issue an arrest warrant' is technically imprecise in this context. While they can order detention in civil prison, the process is a recovery action under the Act, not the issuance of a criminal 'arrest warrant' in the traditional judicial sense. However, compared to (b), (a) is the most definitive and standard power of recovery listed.
- Since (b) is clearly incorrect, (d) 'All of the above' is also incorrect. Therefore, (a) is the most accurate answer.
Which authority is responsible for enforcing the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regulations in Mizoram?
A)
Ministry of Home Affairs
B)
Mizoram Police
C)
District Magistrate
D)
Deputy Commissioner
The Inner Line Permit (ILP) is a travel document required for Indian and foreign nationals to enter protected states like Mizoram. While the policy framework is governed by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the administrative issuance/oversight is handled by the District Administration (Deputy Commissioners/District Magistrates), the actual 'enforcement'—which involves checking permits at checkpoints, patrolling borders, and apprehending violators—is the primary responsibility of the state's law enforcement agency, the Mizoram Police.
- Option (a) Ministry of Home Affairs: They are the policy-making body at the central level, not the ground-level enforcement agency.
- Option (c) and (d) District Magistrate/Deputy Commissioner: These are administrative roles responsible for the issuance of permits and general administration, but they do not physically enforce the regulations at checkpoints.