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Past Questions
Agent that causes African Swine Fever (ASF).
A)
Astrovirus
B)
Asfivirus
C)
Adenovirus
D)
None of these
African Swine Fever (ASF) is caused by African swine fever virus, which belongs to the genus Asfivirus in the family Asfarviridae. Astrovirus and Adenovirus are different virus groups and do not cause ASF. Therefore, the correct answer is Asfivirus.
Examining the distribution of disease in a population, and observing the basic features of its distribution.
A)
Descriptive epidemiology
B)
Analytical epidemiology
C)
Experimental epidemiology
D)
Theoritical epidemiology
Descriptive epidemiology deals with the distribution of disease in a population by describing its basic features such as person, place, and time. It answers 'what is happening' and 'who, where, and when'. Analytical epidemiology, in contrast, looks for causes and associations ('why and how'). Experimental epidemiology involves interventions or trials. 'Theoritical epidemiology' is not the standard term used for this concept.
Sweet curdling in milk is due to:-
A)
Bacillus subtilis
B)
Bacillus lactis
C)
Streptococcus lactis
D)
Lactobacillus casei
Sweet curdling of milk is caused by lactic acid bacteria, especially Streptococcus lactis, which ferment lactose and produce acid, leading to curdling without putrefactive foul smell. Bacillus subtilis is associated with ropiness/spoilage, while Lactobacillus casei is more commonly associated with later stages of souring, not specifically sweet curdling.
The FSSAI has been formed in the year __________ under the Food safety and standards Act, 2006 which is related to food safety and regulation in India.
A)
2006
B)
2009
C)
2011
D)
2016
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was established in 2008 under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, and it became fully operational in 2009. In exam questions asking the year FSSAI was formed, the commonly accepted answer is 2009. Hence, option (b) is correct. The other years do not match the formation/operational timeline of FSSAI.
Total condemnation of the carcass should be done during judgement in PM inspection.
A)
Chronic mastitis
B)
Acute and septic mastitis
C)
Sub – clinical mastitis
D)
All of these
In post-mortem (PM) meat inspection, total condemnation of the carcass is justified when the condition is severe and indicates systemic spread or septicemia risk. Acute septic mastitis is a generalized, infectious, and potentially toxic condition, so the carcass should be condemned. Chronic mastitis and sub-clinical mastitis are usually localized conditions and do not by themselves require total condemnation of the carcass.
Reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) is a variant of PCR which is used for synthesis of __________.
A)
RNA from DNA
B)
cDNA from RNA
C)
DNA from RNA
D)
All of these
Reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) first uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert RNA into complementary DNA (cDNA), and then the cDNA is amplified by PCR. Therefore, RT-PCR is used for synthesis of cDNA from RNA. Option (a) is incorrect because RNA is not synthesized from DNA in RT-PCR; option (c) is too general and not the standard description; option (d) is incorrect because not all listed products are correct.
__________ is the proportion of known uninfected reference animals that test negative.
A)
Diagnostic sensitivity
B)
Diagnostic specificity
C)
Cut - off
D)
None of these
Diagnostic specificity is defined as the proportion of known uninfected reference animals that test negative. In other words, it measures how well a test correctly identifies non-diseased animals. By contrast, diagnostic sensitivity is the proportion of infected animals that test positive. Cut-off refers to the threshold used to classify results as positive or negative, not the proportion itself.
Father of Bacteriology.
A)
Louis Pasteur
B)
Robert Koch
C)
Edward Jenner
D)
None of these
Louis Pasteur is widely regarded as the Father of Bacteriology because of his pioneering work on microbes, fermentation, pasteurization, and germ theory. Robert Koch is famous for establishing Koch’s postulates and advancing medical bacteriology, but he is not usually called the father of bacteriology. Edward Jenner is known as the father of immunology/vaccination, not bacteriology.
__________ is an emerging disease.
A)
Covid -19
B)
Swine flu
C)
FMD
D)
All of these
An emerging disease is one that has newly appeared in a population or is rapidly increasing in incidence or geographic range. COVID-19, swine flu (H1N1 influenza), and foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) are all commonly treated as emerging or re-emerging infectious diseases in epidemiology/veterinary public health contexts. Therefore, the best answer is 'All of these'.
The more intensive form of data recording where tracing and observation of people/animal who were in contact with cases of infectious disease.
A)
Monitoring
B)
Surveillance
C)
Modelling
D)
Studying
The phrase describes systematic tracing and observation of contacts of infectious disease cases, which is a form of epidemiological surveillance. Surveillance involves ongoing collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data for public health action. Monitoring is broader and less intensive, while modelling and studying are not forms of direct data recording of contacts.
The causative organism of Scrub typhus.
A)
Rickettsia rickettsia
B)
Orientia tsutsugamushi
C)
Rickettsiella
D)
Coxiella burnetti
Scrub typhus is caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi, an obligate intracellular bacterium formerly classified under Rickettsia. Option (a) Rickettsia rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever, not scrub typhus. Option (c) Rickettsiella is not the causative agent of scrub typhus. Option (d) Coxiella burnetii causes Q fever.
Ingestion of toxin already produced by microorganisms in the food brings about poisoning symptoms in the consumers.
A)
Food infection
B)
Food toxi-infection
C)
Food intoxication
D)
All of these
Food intoxication occurs when a person ingests toxins that have already been produced by microorganisms in the food. The illness is due to the toxin itself, not necessarily the live microbes. In contrast, food infection is caused by ingesting live pathogens that multiply in the body, and food toxi-infection involves both infection and toxin production in the intestine. Therefore, the correct answer is Food intoxication.
The type of relationship where the parasites may not necessarily live with each other in order to survive.
A)
Obligate symbiosis
B)
Facultative symbiosis
C)
Ecosymbiosis
D)
Endosymbiosis
In facultative symbiosis, the organisms are associated with each other but do not necessarily depend on one another to survive. They can live independently as well. In contrast, obligate symbiosis requires the association for survival, endosymbiosis refers to one organism living inside another, and ecosymbiosis is not the correct term for this definition.
A host that shelters an organism which does not usually parasitize that host.
A)
Accidental host
B)
Incidental host
C)
Primary host
D)
Reservoir host
An incidental host is a host that shelters an organism that does not usually parasitize that host. It is an unintended or abnormal host for the parasite.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) Accidental host: often used similarly in some texts, but the standard term expected here is incidental host.
- (c) Primary host: this is the main/definitive host where the parasite reaches sexual maturity.
- (d) Reservoir host: a host that maintains the parasite in nature and serves as a source of infection.
Parasite with “Lancet” shaped spicule.
A)
Nematodirus baltus
B)
Nematodirus fillicolis
C)
Nematodirus spathiger
D)
Dictyocaulus filariae.
The parasite described by a "lancet-shaped spicule" is **Nematodirus spathiger**. In veterinary parasitology, species of Nematodirus are distinguished by the shape of the male spicules; **N. spathiger** is classically associated with a lance/lancet-shaped spicule. The other options are not known for this characteristic: **N. battus** and **N. filicollis** have different spicule morphology, and **Dictyocaulus filaria** is a lungworm, not identified by lancet-shaped spicules.
Kanagawa reaction is exhibited by __________.
A)
Clostridium perfingen
B)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C)
Bacillus anthracis
D)
Brucella abortus
Kanagawa reaction is the hemolysis shown by certain strains of Vibrio parahaemolyticus on Wagatsuma blood agar. It is used as an important test for identifying pathogenic strains. The other options are incorrect: Clostridium perfringens is known for double-zone hemolysis, Bacillus anthracis is associated with non-hemolytic colonies and capsule formation, and Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, not Kanagawa reaction.
PMSG is rich in __________.
A)
FSH like hormone
B)
LH like hormone
C)
LTH like hormone
D)
None of these
PMSG stands for Pregnant Mare Serum Gonadotropin (equine chorionic gonadotropin). It has mainly FSH-like activity, so it is considered rich in FSH-like hormone. LH-like activity may also be present to a lesser extent, but the standard exam answer is FSH-like hormone. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Oxyuris equi are commonly known as :
A)
Pin worm
B)
Caecal worm
C)
Stomach worm
D)
None of these
Oxyuris equi is the equine pinworm, commonly called pin worm. It lives in the large intestine of horses and causes irritation around the anus. The other options are incorrect: caecal worm refers to Trichonema/strongyle-related worms, and stomach worm refers to parasites like Habronema or Gastrophilus depending on context.
According to CDC __________ disease is not included in Category-A biological weapons.
A)
Anthrax
B)
Brucellosis
C)
Plague
D)
Small pox
CDC Category A biological agents are those that pose the highest risk to national security and include Anthrax, Plague, Smallpox, Tularemia, Botulism, and viral hemorrhagic fevers. Brucellosis is not in Category A; it is generally classified as a Category B agent.
A Single stranded RNA family with positive strands.
A)
Orthomyxoviridae
B)
Paramyxoviridae
C)
Coronaviridae
D)
Rhabdoviridae
Coronaviridae are enveloped viruses with a single-stranded, positive-sense RNA genome. The other options are not positive-sense ssRNA families: Orthomyxoviridae are segmented negative-sense ssRNA, Paramyxoviridae are negative-sense ssRNA, and Rhabdoviridae are negative-sense ssRNA.
The “Global Vector Control Response (GVCR) 2017 - 2030” was approved by the World Health Assembly in __________.
A)
2015
B)
2017
C)
2019
D)
2021
The Global Vector Control Response (GVCR) 2017–2030 was endorsed/approved by the World Health Assembly in 2017. The title itself includes the period 2017–2030, and the official WHO adoption year is 2017. Therefore, option (b) is correct. The other years do not match the WHA approval year.
Presence of blood in the sputum is called __________.
A)
Haematemesis
B)
Epistaxis
C)
Melena.
D)
Haemoptysis
Blood in the sputum is called haemoptysis. Haematemesis means vomiting of blood, epistaxis means bleeding from the nose, and melena means black tarry stools due to digested blood in the gastrointestinal tract.
__________ is the fluid part of blood after clotting of whole blood.
A)
Plasma
B)
RBC
C)
WBC
D)
Serum
When whole blood clots, clotting factors such as fibrinogen are used up in forming the clot. The remaining fluid is called serum. Plasma is the fluid part of blood before clotting, while RBC and WBC are blood cells, not fluid components.
Differential staining technique(s).
A)
Gram’s staining
B)
Ziehl Neelsen staining technique
C)
Both (a) & (b)
D)
None of these
Differential staining methods distinguish between different types of bacteria based on differences in cell wall structure or staining properties. Gram’s staining differentiates Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, and Ziehl-Neelsen staining differentiates acid-fast from non-acid-fast organisms. Therefore, both are differential staining techniques.
Headquarter of OIE.
A)
Italy
B)
Switzerland
C)
Paris
D)
USA
The OIE (now called the World Organisation for Animal Health, WOAH) has its headquarters in Paris, France. Therefore, the correct option is (c) Paris. Italy, Switzerland, and USA are not the headquarters location.